Optimistic Locking - Possible bug with Weblogic

After extensive testing of a j2ee application Im involved with, it would appear their exists a problem with using Weblogic's Optimistic Concurrency (OL) mechanism.
The exact problem is as follows:
The ejbCreate and ejbRemove methods of a particular entity bean are as follows:
public abstract class ProductBean implements javax.ejb.EntityBean {
ejbCreate(){
FolderEntityHome folderEH = FolderComponent.getFolderEntityHome();
folderEH.create(getId());
ejbRemove(){
FolderEntityHome folderEH = FolderComponent.getFolderEntityHome();
try {
FolderBean folderEH.findByProductId(getId());
catch(InvalidAccessRightsException iare)
throw new RemoveException();
Previously before OL was added when a RemoveException was thrown, this would cause the ejbRemove exception to fail, thus both the product and folder would still exist.
After adding OL, when an InvalidAccessRightsException occurs giving rise to a RemoveException being thrown, weblogic simply ignores the RemoveException and deletes the Product even though the Folder could not be deleted. This causes system errors when users try to access the folder which contains a link to a product which no longer exists!
Is anyone aware of this particular problem? Is it indeed a bug with Weblogic? For clarity, I believe I am using version 8.1 and the way in which I have implemented OL is to use an additional version column in the underlying tables for all entity beans.

In case anyone's interested, it appears from further testing that the problem I've been having in the way the RemoveException behaves is down to the difference in which version 6.0 treats this exception compared to version 8.1!
In version 6.0, if you threw a RemoteException at any point in the ejbRemove(), the entity would not be removed!
In version 8.1, something wierd happens. If a RemoteException() is thrown in the ejbRemove() and sometime during the same transaction at the point of commit, the entity on which the exception is thrown is attempted to be accessed (through a finder), then the entity continues to be deleted! If on the other hand, a RemoveException is thrown and no access/modification is attempted on that entity within the same transaction, then at the point of commit, the entity is not removed!
Seems this is indeed a problem which needs to be addressed in future releases.
Message was edited by:
rotan_imretxe
Message was edited by:
rotan_imretxe

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    4->BUGGY: ********123BUGGY5./~\.¿¿¿5************************
    Correct : ********123BUGGY5./~\.123BUGGY5*******************
    Replace 5 at 32758 and 32768
    : _______ 32750 ___ 32760 ___ 32770 ___ 32780
    : _______ 67890123456789012345678901234567890
    Original: ********12345./~\.12345***************************
    5->BUGS : ********1234BUGS./~\.1234BUGS*********************
    Correct : ********1234BUGS./~\.1234BUGS*********************
    5->BUGGY: ********1234BUGGY./~\.1234BUGGY*******************
    Correct : ********1234BUGGY./~\.1234BUGGY*******************======================================

    Correct me if I'm wrong. What this lines does (if there isn't a space between the two single-quotes) is removing the string represented by xmlnsVal from the string xmlDoc. I've been using this method in some situations.
    But I don't know why it won't work either. However, isn't it necessary to do conversion from CLOB to varchar2 before calling replace? Maybe the implicit conversion isn't so reliable. I've seen someone did the following:
    -- clobvar is CLOB
    -- stringvar is varchar2(4000)
    stringvar := cast(clobvar as varchar2(4000));      -- not testedAfter that you can use stringvar in your replace function.
    Or alternately, if exists in 9i, you can try the function regexp_replace() instead. Good luck.

  • TransformerException -- possible bug in weblogic.apache.xalan.transformer.TransformerImpl

    Using WebLogic Server 6.1 SP2. Am using xslt to transform xml into html. After
    repeatedly
    using the same Transformer object to transform different xml documents, the Transformer
    eventually becomes corrupt – sometimes after 20 or so transforms, sometimes only
    after
    thousands.
    Once the Transformer object becomes corrupt, any additional attempt to call the
    transform
    method results in the following exception:
    =============================
    javax.xml.transform.TransformerException: -1
    at weblogic.apache.xalan.transformer.TransformerImpl.transformNode(TransformerImpl.java:1248)
    at weblogic.apache.xalan.transformer.TransformerImpl.transform(TransformerImpl.java:483)
    at weblogic.apache.xalan.transformer.TransformerImpl.transform(TransformerImpl.java:1153)
    at … <snip>
    Caused by: java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException: -1
    at weblogic.apache.xml.utils.NodeVector.popQuick(NodeVector.java:247)
    at weblogic.apache.xpath.XPathContext.popCurrentNode(XPathContext.java:552)
    at weblogic.apache.xalan.transformer.TransformerImpl.applyTemplateToNode(TransformerImpl.java:2100)
    at weblogic.apache.xalan.transformer.TransformerImpl.transformNode(TransformerImpl.java:1225)
    at … <snip>
    =============================
    Using cavaj to decompile weblogic.apache.xalan.transformer.TransformerImpl yields:
    Method: applyTemplateToNode:
    try
    pushElemTemplateElement(elemtemplateelement1);
    m_xcontext.pushCurrentNode(node);
         <snip>
    catch(SAXException saxexception)
    throw new TransformerException(saxexception);
    finally
    m_xcontext.popCurrentNode();
         <snip>
    So what appears to be happening is that one of the two push calls at the beginning
    of the try
    block is throwing an Exception, causing the pop method to be called in the finally
    block without
    first having had a successful call to push. The corresponding NodeVector inside
    m_xcontext
    thereupon becomes corrupt, and it is only a matter of time before the above
    ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException appears.
    Unfortunately, we are unable to consistently reproduce this Transformer corruption
    and
    currently have no idea how it happens in the first place. We figure there’s probably
    some sort
    of error in our xsl stylesheet which is at the root of all this, but have had
    no luck in finding it.
    So, two questions:
    1.) Has anyone encountered this problem of having a bad xsl stylesheet which,
    when applied
    repeatedly on certain xml documents, can cause the Transformer to become corrupt
    as a result
    of calling NodeVector.pop without a corresponding call to NodeVector.push? If
    so, do you have
    a simple example of the type of xsl template and/or xml document which might reproduce
    the
    scenario.
    2.) Would not the above code snippet in TransformerImpl be considered buggy in
    any case,
    since it should not be possible for an invalid xsl stylesheet to permanently corrupt
    the
    Transformer? If there’s agreement that this represents a bug in TransformerImpl,
    has it been
    fixed in 6.1 SP3 or higher, or in subsequent versions of the Weblogic Server?
    Thanks,
    John

    hi,
    I've just recently started getting this error too. It's completely random as
    to when it occurs. My system can process hundreds of translations with no problems
    and then once and awhile I get this exact error.
    I'm using WebLogic v7.0 sp2. I've noticed however that this only happens on my
    Windows system - I've got it running on a solairs box with no problems.
    Has anyone else seen this ?
    Thanks.
    Jerry
    "John Lame" <[email protected]> wrote:
    >
    Using WebLogic Server 6.1 SP2. Am using xslt to transform xml into html.
    After
    repeatedly
    using the same Transformer object to transform different xml documents,
    the Transformer
    eventually becomes corrupt – sometimes after 20 or so transforms, sometimes
    only
    after
    thousands.
    Once the Transformer object becomes corrupt, any additional attempt to
    call the
    transform
    method results in the following exception:
    =============================
    javax.xml.transform.TransformerException: -1
    at weblogic.apache.xalan.transformer.TransformerImpl.transformNode(TransformerImpl.java:1248)
    at weblogic.apache.xalan.transformer.TransformerImpl.transform(TransformerImpl.java:483)
    at weblogic.apache.xalan.transformer.TransformerImpl.transform(TransformerImpl.java:1153)
    at … <snip>
    Caused by: java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException: -1
    at weblogic.apache.xml.utils.NodeVector.popQuick(NodeVector.java:247)
    at weblogic.apache.xpath.XPathContext.popCurrentNode(XPathContext.java:552)
    at weblogic.apache.xalan.transformer.TransformerImpl.applyTemplateToNode(TransformerImpl.java:2100)
    at weblogic.apache.xalan.transformer.TransformerImpl.transformNode(TransformerImpl.java:1225)
    at … <snip>
    =============================
    Using cavaj to decompile weblogic.apache.xalan.transformer.TransformerImpl
    yields:
    Method: applyTemplateToNode:
    try
    pushElemTemplateElement(elemtemplateelement1);
    m_xcontext.pushCurrentNode(node);
         <snip>
    catch(SAXException saxexception)
    throw new TransformerException(saxexception);
    finally
    m_xcontext.popCurrentNode();
         <snip>
    So what appears to be happening is that one of the two push calls at
    the beginning
    of the try
    block is throwing an Exception, causing the pop method to be called in
    the finally
    block without
    first having had a successful call to push. The corresponding NodeVector
    inside
    m_xcontext
    thereupon becomes corrupt, and it is only a matter of time before the
    above
    ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException appears.
    Unfortunately, we are unable to consistently reproduce this Transformer
    corruption
    and
    currently have no idea how it happens in the first place. We figure
    there’s probably
    some sort
    of error in our xsl stylesheet which is at the root of all this, but
    have had
    no luck in finding it.
    So, two questions:
    1.) Has anyone encountered this problem of having a bad xsl stylesheet
    which,
    when applied
    repeatedly on certain xml documents, can cause the Transformer to become
    corrupt
    as a result
    of calling NodeVector.pop without a corresponding call to NodeVector.push?
    If
    so, do you have
    a simple example of the type of xsl template and/or xml document which
    might reproduce
    the
    scenario.
    2.) Would not the above code snippet in TransformerImpl be considered
    buggy in
    any case,
    since it should not be possible for an invalid xsl stylesheet to permanently
    corrupt
    the
    Transformer? If there’s agreement that this represents a bug in TransformerImpl,
    has it been
    fixed in 6.1 SP3 or higher, or in subsequent versions of the Weblogic
    Server?
    Thanks,
    John

  • WLS 9.1 bug with WebLogic Plug-In Enabled?

    We are currently upgrading from WLS 8.1 to WLS 9.1. We use Apache HTTP Server 2.0 on Red Hat Enterprise 4 with the weblogic plugin. We have the plugin configured properly as the application functions properly except for calls to request.getRemoteAddr(). We have WebLogic Plug-In Enabled enabled at the cluster and server level. We verified MBeans reported true using the weblogic scripting tool in interactive mode. We see the WL-Client-Proxy-IP header in the request as expected. We've searched the newsgroups and BEA site and they mention setting the WebLogic Plug-In Enabled option as the problem. It doesn't appear to be ours.
    Is there a bug or are we missing something else? If it is a bug, is there a patch? We have a workaround in place which gets the WL-Client-Proxy-IP header directly, but obviously this isn't the optimal solution for something that was working properly in 8.1.
    Thank you in advance,
    Daniel

    Sure! Calling directly a server is more fast then pass through a load balancer and through a webserver and through (again?) the weblogic plugin (even if it's only a lib!!!)...
              Moreover you could have performance problem if you use hostname instead of IP address, cause for every client call a DNS query must be executed.
              One more thing... The only one load balancer algorithm you must use is the round robin, I'm not speaking about weblogic load balancing algorithm... But about hardware load balancer above the webserver.
              Regards
              Antenore Gatta
              Middleware Specialist
              Hequa S.r.l
              C.so Buenos Aires 77
              20124 Milano
              http://www.Hequa.it
              Tel +39(0)267493078
              Fax +39(0)267493079
              Mobile +39 3481537897
              ______________________________________

  • Possible bug with AlphaComposite.Src?

    While this is possibly a bug, it's more likely a misunderstanding on my part which is why I want to post it here first for comment.
    I have a BufferedImage (type BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_ARGB) with some graphics drawn in it that I want to clear out with a transparent white background (argb=0x00ffffff). That is, I want to replace every pixel in the image with a color of (new Color(255,255,255,0)). FWIW the reason for this is that after clearing and then drawing some new stuff onto the BufferedImage, it will be written out as a 32-bit PNG with a "canvas" color that will render as transparent on Mozilla and opaque white on MSIE (which ignores the 32-bit PNG alpha channel).
    In order to clear the BufferedImage (img), I tried the following:
    // img is a BufferedImage with stuff drawn in it
    g2 = (Graphics2D)img.getGraphics();  
    g2.setComposite(AlphaComposite.Src);
    g2.setPaint(new Color(255,255,255,0));
    g2.fillRect(0,0,w,h);  // w=image width, h=image height
    g2.setPaintMode();
    (draw stuff)The javadocs on AlphaComposite.SRC indicate that the destination pixels should be replaced by the source pixels, so I'd expect the image to be filled with color 0x00ffffff after the fillRect operation. However, I've found that the preexisting contents of img remain unchanged.
    What leads me to suspect that this may be a bug is that if I change the setPaint line to
    g2.setPaint(new Color(255,255,255,1));the contents of img are cleared out. Why should an increase in alpha of only 1/256 make such a difference? The javadocs say that AlphaComposite.SRC should ignore the destination image altogether.
    I'd like it if someone could either 1) explain to me why this is the correct behavior or 2) verify that this could be a bug.
    Thanks
    Ryan Olson

    Ok, I've isolated the bug, I think. It has to do with setting the RenderingHints for a BufferedImage's Graphics2D context, strangely enough. The following test case illustrates the problem:
    import java.awt.image.BufferedImage;
    import java.awt.*;
    public class AlphaCompositeSrcTest {
        private static final Color TRANSPARENT_COLOR = new Color(255,127,255,0);
        /** Creates a new instance of AlphaCompositeSrcTest */
        public AlphaCompositeSrcTest() {
            BufferedImage canvas = new BufferedImage(100,100,BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_ARGB);
            Graphics2D g2 = (Graphics2D)canvas.getGraphics();
            // turning on anti-aliasing here doesn't seem to matter
            g2.setRenderingHint(RenderingHints.KEY_ANTIALIASING, RenderingHints.VALUE_ANTIALIAS_ON);
            for (int i=0; i<10; i++) {
                drawOnImage(canvas);
            System.out.println("All done");
        private void drawOnImage(BufferedImage canvas) {
            Graphics2D g2 = (Graphics2D)canvas.getGraphics();
            // the following line will cause an assertion failure at [1] if not commented out
            g2.setRenderingHint(RenderingHints.KEY_ANTIALIASING, RenderingHints.VALUE_ANTIALIAS_ON); // [1]
            g2.setComposite(AlphaComposite.Src);
            g2.setPaint(TRANSPARENT_COLOR);
            g2.fillRect(0,0,100,100);
            // entire image should now be the transparent color
            assert canvas.getRGB(50, 50) == TRANSPARENT_COLOR.getRGB(); // [2] <-- fails if [1] is present
            g2.setPaintMode();
            g2.setPaint(Color.BLUE);
            g2.fillRect(10, 10, 80, 80);
            // should now be an opaque blue square in center of image with edges still
            // in transparent color
            assert canvas.getRGB(5, 5) == TRANSPARENT_COLOR.getRGB();
            assert canvas.getRGB(50, 50) == Color.BLUE.getRGB();
        public static void main(String[] args) {
            new AlphaCompositeSrcTest();
    }

  • Possible bug with TREAT and EXECUTE IMMEDIATE

    Hello, i experienced a strange behavior which seems to be a bug.
    Consider following definitions:
    CREATE OR REPLACE TYPE T_Base FORCE AS OBJECT (
      DummyProperty NUMBER
    ) NOT FINAL;
    CREATE OR REPLACE TYPE T_Child UNDER T_Base (
      AnotherDummyProperty  NUMBER
    CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION SpecificValidation (iValue T_Child) RETURN NUMBER IS
    BEGIN
      -- some specific validation is done here, not important for the example
      RETURN NULL;
    END;
    CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE ValidateIt (iValue T_Child) IS
      lResult NUMBER;
    BEGIN
      -- The principle used here is that each client can have its own implementation of validation function, and when it does not exist, we do not care.
      -- In reality we put functions and procedures into packages, I narrowed it to a minimal working example.
      BEGIN
        EXECUTE IMMEDIATE 'BEGIN :lResult := SpecificValidation(:iValue); END;'
          USING OUT lResult, IN iValue;
      EXCEPTION WHEN OTHERS THEN
        IF INSTR(SQLERRM, 'PLS-00201') = 0 THEN
          RAISE;
        END IF;
      END;
    END;
    CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE Process (iValue T_Base) IS
    BEGIN
      -- in fact we know that iValue must be of typ T_Child, it is checked using IS OF ( ) operator and exception is raised if this check fails
      -- This does not work for some reason.
      -- It fails in EXECUTE IMMEDIATE with PLS-00306. I don't really get why, because ValidateIt accepts a value of type T_Child and it passes it to the validation procedure, which also expects value of type T_Child.
      ValidateIt(TREAT(iValue AS T_Child));
    END;
    CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE Process2 (iValue T_Base) IS
      lChild  T_Child;
    BEGIN
      -- The only difference here is that result of TREAT is saved to a variable.
      -- This works as expected.
      lChild := TREAT(iValue AS T_Child);
      ValidateIt(lChild);
    END;
    In reality it is much more complex, I narrowed it to a minimal working example.
    Now when running this:
    DECLARE
      lItem T_Base := T_Child(5, 2);
    BEGIN
      BEGIN
        -- This call will end up with PLS-00306 error.
        Process(lItem);
        dbms_output.put_line('Process completed successfully.');
      EXCEPTION WHEN OTHERS THEN
        dbms_output.put_line('Exception when calling Process.');
        dbms_output.put_line(SQLERRM);
        dbms_output.put_line(DBMS_UTILITY.FORMAT_ERROR_BACKTRACE);
      END;
      BEGIN
        Process2(lItem);
        dbms_output.put_line('Process2 completed successfully.');
      EXCEPTION WHEN OTHERS THEN
        dbms_output.put_line('Exception when calling Process2.');
        dbms_output.put_line(SQLERRM);
        dbms_output.put_line(DBMS_UTILITY.FORMAT_ERROR_BACKTRACE);
      END;
    END;
    then call to Process fails with PLS-00306 on EXECUTE IMMEDIATE.
    The only difference between Process and Process2 is that in Process2, result of TREAT is saved to a variable of type T_Child.
    Is this behavior documented somwhere or is it a bug?

    That's interesting. I would say it is, or should be, a bug.
    Also interesting is, when I re-write your example to eliminate dynamic SQL and instead rely on dynamic method dispatch, the problem goes away... first, the changes:
    drop type T_Child;
    drop type T_Base
    CREATE OR REPLACE TYPE T_Base FORCE AS OBJECT ( 
      DummyProperty NUMBER 
    ) NOT FINAL
    CREATE OR REPLACE TYPE T_Child UNDER T_Base ( 
      AnotherDummyProperty  NUMBER 
    create or replace type T_Base_Processor as object (
      dummyProperty    number
    , static FUNCTION GetClientProcessor(iClientId varchar2) RETURN T_Base_Processor
    , member FUNCTION SpecificValidation (iValue T_Child) RETURN NUMBER
    , member PROCEDURE ValidateIt (iValue T_Child)
    , member PROCEDURE Process (iValue T_Base)
    , member PROCEDURE Process2 (iValue T_Base)
    ) NOT FINAL
    create or replace type T_Another_Processor under T_Base_Processor (
      overriding member FUNCTION SpecificValidation (iValue T_Child) RETURN NUMBER
    create or replace type body T_Base_Processor
    is
      static FUNCTION GetClientProcessor(iClientId varchar2) RETURN T_Base_Processor IS
    BEGIN
      return    case
            when upper(iClientId) = 'ADMINISTRATOR' then
                new T_Another_Processor(null)
            else
                new T_Base_Processor(null)
            end;
    END;
      member FUNCTION SpecificValidation (iValue T_Child) RETURN NUMBER IS 
    BEGIN 
      -- some specific validation is done here, not important for the example 
      dbms_output.put_line('T_Base_Processor.SpecificValidation');
      RETURN NULL; 
    END; 
      member PROCEDURE ValidateIt (iValue T_Child) IS 
      lResult NUMBER; 
    BEGIN 
      -- No more need for dynamic SQL, instead rely on dynamic dispatch
      lResult := SpecificValidation(iValue);
    END; 
      member PROCEDURE Process (iValue T_Base) IS 
    BEGIN 
      -- in fact we know that iValue must be of typ T_Child, it is checked using IS OF ( ) operator and exception is raised if this check fails 
      -- This does not work for some reason. 
      -- It fails in EXECUTE IMMEDIATE with PLS-00306. I don't really get why, because ValidateIt accepts a value of type T_Child and it passes it to the validation procedure, which also expects value of type T_Child. 
      ValidateIt(TREAT(iValue AS T_Child)); 
    END; 
      member PROCEDURE Process2 (iValue T_Base) IS 
      lChild  T_Child; 
    BEGIN 
      -- The only difference here is that result of TREAT is saved to a variable. 
      -- This works as expected. 
      lChild := TREAT(iValue AS T_Child); 
      ValidateIt(lChild); 
    END;
    end;
    create or replace type body T_Another_Processor
    is
      overriding member FUNCTION SpecificValidation (iValue T_Child) RETURN NUMBER
    is
    begin
      -- some other specific validation is done here, not important for the example 
      -- You could even call the overridden method as well using
      --   treat(self as T_Base_Processor).SpecificValidation(iValue)
      dbms_output.put_line('T_Another_Processor.SpecificValidation');
      RETURN NULL; 
    end;
    end;
    And again with slight modifications, your test block:
    DECLARE 
      lProcessor T_Base_Processor := T_Base_Processor.getClientProcessor('JOE');
      lItem T_Base := T_Child(5, 2); 
    BEGIN 
      BEGIN 
        -- This call no longer throws a PLS-00306 error. 
        lProcessor.Process(lItem); 
        dbms_output.put_line('Process completed successfully.'); 
      EXCEPTION WHEN OTHERS THEN 
        dbms_output.put_line('Exception when calling Process.'); 
        dbms_output.put_line(SQLERRM); 
        dbms_output.put_line(DBMS_UTILITY.FORMAT_ERROR_BACKTRACE); 
      END; 
      -- Demonstrate dynamic dispatch by choosing a different processor
      lProcessor := T_Base_Processor.getClientProcessor('ADMINISTRATOR');
      BEGIN 
        lProcessor.Process2(lItem); 
        dbms_output.put_line('Process2 completed successfully.'); 
      EXCEPTION WHEN OTHERS THEN 
        dbms_output.put_line('Exception when calling Process2.'); 
        dbms_output.put_line(SQLERRM); 
        dbms_output.put_line(DBMS_UTILITY.FORMAT_ERROR_BACKTRACE); 
      END; 
    END; 
    T_Base_Processor.SpecificValidation
    Process completed successfully.
    T_Another_Processor.SpecificValidation
    Process2 completed successfully.
    Gerard

  • Possible bug with APEX_ITEM.DATE_POPUP

    Hello,
    APEX 3.1 (and maybe even some previous versions).
    It seems like APEX_ITEM.DATE_POPUP creates all the cells in the corresponding column with the same ID. The result is that the dates returned by every date picker, in all the rows of the column, are being placed only in the first row cell.
    I searched the forum, and found couple threads describing the problem, but nothing from the APEX team acknowledging a bug. Is it a bug? If so, and if it’s not already logged, can someone from the APEX team log it as one?
    Thanks,
    Arie.

    Hi Arie,
    Thanks for you reply i dont get any error msg here in date picker the only problem wht i am facing here is when i deploy the java script date picker is not working
    Please suggest me how to modify the existing code
    this is function wht i am calling in the date picker
    <script type="text/javascript">
    function checkdates_baseline(pStartDateItem,pEndDateItem)
    var sdate = document.getElementById(pStartDateItem).value;
    var edate = document.getElementById(pEndDateItem).value;
    if(sdate != "" & edate != "")
    var m2int = {
    Jan: 0,
    Feb: 1,
    Mar: 2,
    Apr: 3,
    May: 4,
    Jun: 5,
    Jul: 6,
    Aug: 7,
    Sep: 8,
    Oct: 9,
    Nov: 10,
    Dec: 11 };
    var start_year = sdate.substring(7,11);
    var start_month = sdate.substring(3,6);
    var start_day = sdate.substring(0,2);
    var start_date = new Date(start_year, m2int[start_month], start_day);
    var end_year = edate.substring(7,11);
    var end_month = edate.substring(3,6);
    var end_day = edate.substring(0,2);
    var end_date = new Date(end_year, m2int[end_month], end_day);
    if( end_date <= start_date )
    alert('The End date must be after the Start Date Baseline');
    document.getElementById(pEndDateItem).value = "";
    </script>
    and this is the SQL query where i am using and deployed the java script
    SELECT
    HTMLDB_ITEM.DATE_POPUP(3,1,null,''DD-Mon-YYYY'',10,8,
    '' id="sdate''||rownum||''" readonly="yes"
    onchange="checkdates_baseline(''''sdate''||rownum||'''''',''''edate''||rownum||'''''');"'')
    "Baseline Start",
    HTMLDB_ITEM.DATE_POPUP(4,2,null,''DD-Mon-YYYY'',10,15,
    '' id="edate''||rownum||''" readonly="yes" onchange="checkdates_baseline(''''sdate''||rownum||'''''',''''edate''||rownum||'''''');"'') "Baseline End"
    FROM
    DUAL
    please suggest with a code or a example how to change this, in apex 3.1
    thanks
    Sudhir

  • Possible bug with RV220W PPTP with firmware 1.0.1.0

    I have a RV220W that I was running firmware 1.0.1.0 and I was having a very hard time getting the PPTP VPN to work on it so last night I did some testing
    I downgraded to firmware 1.0.0.26 and did a factory reset and set up PPTP and tested and it worked.
    I then restored my setting from a backup and tested and it worked
    Then upgraded to 1.0.1.0, did a factory reset and tested and got disconnected from the VPN right away (no data in logs)
    So in order to use PPTP I had to downgrade back to 1.0.0.26
    Thanks,
    Phil

    Hi Guys,
    A bug fix has gone into development,  it is bug id CSCto08922.  I wlll push it along on your behalf.    There is a wierd work around for the problem.
    It involved doing the following;
    step 1.  Getting hold of beta firmware from Level 2 support by asking the SBSC technician to escalate the case .
        refer the good folk at the SBSC to this posting if you are having any trouble.
        I am happy for them to contact me. You will need Firmware version 1.0.2.1, BUT don't install it yet
    step 2. The new beta code has a problem with configuration of the PPTP server, you can't see the PPTP setting, hey it's betacode.
    Step 3. So,  I made sure my RV220W is at the  current generally available  code version 1.0.0.26 so I could  configure the pptp server options.
    Step 4.  unfortunately  i  had to altered my LAN network setting, as version 1.0.0.26 code does not allow you to have the PPTP range of addresses inside the existing LAN network.
    So if you LAN address is 192.168.1.1 you will find you get a error if you try to  set the PPTP address range to 192.168.1.X to 192.168.1.Y
    My LAN network was going to be 192.168.20.X, but after factory reset the LAN reverted back to 192.168.1.1.
    I set my PPTP server to allocate IP range 192.168.20.250 to 192.168.20.254.
    Step 5  I added my five PPTP user accounts.
    step 6. I altered the  LAN IP of my router from 192.168.1.1  to my desired address of  192.168.20.1
    Step 7.  Then upgraded to beta code. version 1.0.2.1.
    PPTP  then worked like a dream - at last
    There  should be no difficulty getting hold of Beta code version 1.0.2.1, but your case may need to be escalated . The following URL had contact details for the SBSC. 
    Again my apologies for this hassle.
    http://www.cisco.com/en/US/support/tsd_cisco_small_business_support_center_contacts.html
    regards Dave

  • Creating a QT movie in iPhoto 5--possible bug with OS 10.4.3

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