BPM RFC synch send step

Hi
I am using RFC synch send step with in parforeach block in BPM. do I need to activate correlation to correlate synchronous request and synchronous response for RFC synch send step ?
Please let me know if you have any ideas on this.
Thanks
Anand

Hi Michal,
Thanks for the reply.
In SAP help I found the statement made below.
Activating a Correlation
An asynchronous or synchronous send step can activate correlations. This can be useful in the following cases:
· Synchronous send step
A synchronous send step waits for a reply message to be received. On receipt of this reply message,
correlations can be activated to correlate additional messages.**********************************Any idea on highlighted sentence...
Thanks
Anand

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Ok do one thing create a container variable. Dont use this container variable in any steps. now pt a condition at the point whr u want to check whehter the container variable in which u r receiveing the msg is not equal to this newly created container variable. If the condition is satisfed, u hv receive the msg i.e. ur container variable is not empty.
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Message was edited by:
Akshay Salunke

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idoc and finally posted to R/3.
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Happy 2008

hi Farooq!!
Others are working.
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additional error info)(
Work item 000000364714: Object CL_SWF_XI_MSG_BROKER method SEND_SYNCHRON cannot be executed
Message no. WL821
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The calling of the object method for the work item ended with a return value for which no handling is modeled in the workflow.
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Procedure
Refer to your workflow system administrator.
Procedure for System Administration
Also check the binding between the task container and the method container.
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Hi,
e urn:Haworthinc.com:India_Tax SIAA_IndiaTax_DBSelect_TICUSEXT has multiple operations
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I have a s/a bridge in my BPM and I need to send sync messages to another interface and get response, no problems ok?
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Hi,
>>>>the sync step inside BPM need a receiver determination in config?
of course it does - just like any other send step in a BPM
Regards,
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<a href="/people/michal.krawczyk2/blog/2005/06/28/xipi-faq-frequently-asked-questions">XI / PI FAQ - Frequently Asked Questions</a>

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hope this is a simple question, but we are running with a problem here which is not answered well in SAP help or sdn. Possibly I didn´t find the right blog.
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We created a BPM with a send step (IDOC receiver) in a block (after a receive step starting the BPM) (That´s simple so far!).
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Hello again,
we are one step further now.
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Best regards
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No exception defined for fault message hostname http://xml.apache.org/axis/
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I didn't define a message called hostname, so where he got this name from?
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chris

No, everything seems fine.
Here is the payload of response :

<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes" ?>
- 
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<SAP:P1 />
<SAP:P2 />
<SAP:P3 />
<SAP:P4 />
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Hello,
I ehanced an existing BPM where a send step sends data to a J2EE system. I inserted a switch and put the existing send step to one branche and a new send step to the otherweise-branche. The new send step interrupt with an error:
No exception defined for fault message hostname http://xml.apache.org/axis/
But there is an exception branche defined. An idea what's the problem?
I didn't define a message called hostname, so where he got this name from?
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No, everything seems fine.
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<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes" ?>
- 
- <SAP:Error xmlns:SAP="http://sap.com/xi/XI/Message/30" xmlns:SOAP="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" SOAP:mustUnderstand="1">
<SAP:Category>Application</SAP:Category>
<SAP:Code area="UNKNOWN">APPLICATION_ERROR</SAP:Code>
<SAP:P1 />
<SAP:P2 />
<SAP:P3 />
<SAP:P4 />
<SAP:AdditionalText>application fault</SAP:AdditionalText>
<SAP:ApplicationFaultMessage namespace="http://xml.apache.org/axis/">hostname</SAP:ApplicationFaultMessage>
<SAP:Stack />
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Hi,
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Thanks,
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I am developing a BPM with Asynch RFC -> synch Webservice -> Asynch RFC scenario.
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Thanks

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check stephan's reply @ How catch the SOAP Fault Message ?
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