Deriving Value From Totals Column

BI Publisher 11g:
I have the following report I generated:
BOX TYPE
NUMBER OF BOXES
COST
COST PER BOX
A
10
$100
$10
B
20
$140
$7
TOTAL
30
$240
$17
My problem is that in the TOTAL row in the COST PER BOX column the value should not be $17 i.e ($10 + $7) It should actually be $8 i.e ($240 / $30). Does anyone know how to compute this correct value.

Assuming this xml data structure:
<DATA_DS>
<G_4>
<BOX_TYPE>A</BOX_TYPE>
<NUM_BOXES>10</NUM_BOXES>
<COST>100</COST>
</G_4>
<G_4>
<BOX_TYPE>B</BOX_TYPE>
<NUM_BOXES>20</NUM_BOXES>
<COST>140</COST>
</G_4>
</DATA_DS>
You can use the following code to get the values:
row1: <?for-each-group:G_4;./BOX_TYPE?><?sort:current-group()/BOX_TYPE;'ascending';data-type='text'?> <?BOX_TYPE?>  <?NUM_BOXES?> <?COST?> <?COST div NUM_BOXES?><?end for-each-group?>
row2: <?sum(NUM_BOXES)?> <?sum(COST)?>  <?sum(COST) div sum(NUM_BOXES)?>
Thanks,
Bipuser

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    Insert into A
    (ID, F_NAME, L_NAME) Values (4,'APRIL','TONY');
    Insert into A
    (ID, F_NAME, L_NAME) Values (5,'ROSS','TAM');
    ID F_NAME L_NAME
    1 TONY SUMIT
    2 SUMIT KEITH
    3 NORA SMITH
    4 APRIL TONY
    5 ROSS TAM
    4. My requirement is i need display IDs that it's F_NAME or L_NAME has duplication in F_NAME or L_NAME columns.
    The result should be
    ID
    1 reason: F_NAME (TONY) equals to L_NAME of record 4, L_NAME (SUMIT) equals to F_NAME of record 2
    2 reason: F_NAME (SUMIT) equals to L_NAME of record 1
    4 reason: L_NAME (TONY) equals to F_NAME of record 1
    record 3, 5 aren't in the result because there is no duplication in F_NAME or L_NAME columns for NORA,SMITH, ROSS, TAM
    The table contains 10 million records, i really need to consider the performance.
    kindly suggest me the solution

    Note: Forum members please suggest better approach to this -- below.. convert into SQL :)
    I know I will be opposed by many people in this forum for posting such in-efficient solution.
    But trying to learn along with you.. its an interesting problem which must deal with all rows vs all rows to get all combinations.
    But I am still thinking how to write it in SQL, probably will learn from this post after we receive some good SQL solution for the code what I am currently doing now.
    step 1: created a table B similar to table A and added a column reason
    CREATE TABLE B
      ID      NUMBER(10),
      F_NAME  VARCHAR2(100 BYTE),
      L_NAME  VARCHAR2(100 BYTE),
      REASON  VARCHAR2(1000 BYTE)  --- ADDED THIS
    )Definetely inefficient :(
    BEGIN
       FOR rec_outer IN (SELECT * FROM A) LOOP
          FOR rec_inner IN (SELECT * FROM A) LOOP
             IF (rec_outer.f_name = rec_inner.l_name) THEN
                UPDATE B
                   SET reason =
                             rec_outer.id
                          || ' reason: F_NAME ('
                          || rec_outer.f_name
                          || ') equals to L_NAME of record '
                          || rec_inner.id
                 WHERE b.id = rec_outer.id;
             END IF;
          END LOOP;
          FOR rec_inner IN (SELECT * FROM A) LOOP
             IF (rec_outer.l_name = rec_inner.f_name) THEN
                UPDATE B
                   SET reason =
                          reason
                          || CASE
                                WHEN reason IS NULL THEN
                                   rec_outer.id || ' reason: '
                                ELSE
                             END
                          || 'L_NAME ('
                          || rec_inner.f_name
                          || ') equals to F_NAME of record '
                          || rec_inner.id
                 WHERE b.id = rec_outer.id;
             END IF;
          END LOOP;
       END LOOP;
       COMMIT;
    EXCEPTION
       WHEN OTHERS THEN
          rollback;
          RAISE;
    END;OUTPUT:
    ID     F_NAME     L_NAME     REASON
    1     TONY     SUMIT     1 reason: F_NAME (TONY) equals to L_NAME of record 4,L_NAME (SUMIT) equals to F_NAME of record 2
    2     SUMIT     KEITH     2 reason: F_NAME (SUMIT) equals to L_NAME of record 1
    3     NORA     SMITH     
    4     APRIL     TONY     4 reason: L_NAME (TONY) equals to F_NAME of record 1
    5     ROSS     TAM     Cheers,
    Manik.
    Edited : Added rollback

  • Passing value from Report Column to Javascript

    Dear Apex wizards,
    I am a bit stuck right now with implementing a modal pop-up/iframe/javascript and this forum is my last hope to fix this issue.
    Anyway, will try to explain what I am trying to accomplish.
    What I need is: I want to have an SQL report, as a very first column I want to have an "ID" numbers from my table and I want this column to have a "Column Link" set in "Column Attributes" proper ties. The trick is, that when I click on the column link (when I run my report on Apex page) I need a JQuery modal window to pop-up where in IFrame will be another page and this page will use an "ID" from my column link URL to display data. So, basically I want to pass an "ID" value from my parent page to my child page which is displayed in iFrame of modal window.
    And here is what I have:
    1. I do have an SQL report:
    select SUBNET_ID,
           long2ip(NETWORK_ADDRESS),
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    4. And here I am getting confused, basically I have to pass a value of javascript:ViewNetworkDetails(#SUBNET_ID#);, which seems to work as it gives me correct numbers from my table, to my "ViewNetworkDetails" JavaScript function, so it can paste this value into "f?p=........." iFrame URL. Below is my Jquery Modal form script and Javascript to redirect me to my popup page (the script is in HTML Header):
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    var subnetIDNumber = document.getElementById(#SUBNET_ID#);
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    <iframe src="f?p='+apexAppId+':103:'+apexSession+'::NO:103:P103_SUBNET_ID:'+subnetIDNumber+'
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    $(document.body).append(vRuleBox);
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    modal: true,                            
                            width: 950,                    
    resizable: true,
    autoResize: true,
    draggable: true,
    close : function(){$("#ViewNetworkDetailsBox").remove();
                            location.reload(true); }
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    P.S. P.S. the child page 103 has a "Automated Row Fetch", so it is not a problem. In addition, I did a simple test, where I had a page item "P102_Value" with some value and in my script I had instead var subnetIDNumber = document.getElementById(#SUBNET_ID#); this var subnetIDNumber = $v('P102_Value'); and it worked perfectly fine....but cannot make it working against SQL Select statement :-(
    HEEEEEEEEEEEEEELLLLLPPPP.
    Thanks

    Change your column link to send the subnet_id column's value to the function call (you mentioned it, but I m not sure if you actually did)
    javascript:ViewNetworkDetails(#SUBNET_ID#);<u>You are passing the parameter value to the function, but not defined any parameters in the function definition</u>(this is possible in JS, any extra parameters is ignored)
    So, modify the function to accept the subnet ID parameter(I am actually surprised how you missed this) and assign that parameter to variable.
    <script type="text/javascript">
    function ViewNetworkDetails(pSubnetId){
    var apexSession = $v('pInstance');
    var apexAppId = $v('pFlowId');
    var subnetIDNumber = pSubnetId;
    //rest of the code would be the same

  • How do I return a value from a column based on info from neighboring columns?

    I have a table of data that looks similar to this:
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    106
    Name1
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    106
    Name2
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    2
    106
    Name3
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    3
    106
    Name4
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    1
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    Name6
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    Name7
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    Name8
    School3
    4
    It's a very large table, so there will be multiple matches for Schools, and occasionally a few matches for Names, but there will always be only one match for a given Weight and Division.
    In a separate table, how can I get the name of the person associated with the unique weight and division?
    In my head, the formula goes" "Look in the Weight column to find 106, then look in the Division column to find 4, then return the value from the Name column." But I can't figure out the formula that will do that.
    Any thoughts?

    Hi momogabi,
    This can be easily done with an index column.
    The formula I used in your original table for the index column is:
    =A2&"-"&D2. This was filled down. The column can be hidden.
    You can see the formula in the search table. If I wanted to eliminate the index column in that table the formula would look something like:
    =INDEX('Table 1-1'::B,MATCH(A2&"-"&B2,'Table 1-1'::E,0),1)
    Hope this helps.
    quinn

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