How to grant BI server to write to event table.
Hi,
I've created my event polling table and activated it. But how and where to set up so that the data source for the event table can write to the physical table?
Thanks.
May
hi,
you explain us your situation really good.but you forgot to tell us the most import,the measures in aggregate table and the aggregated dimensions.
meaning,you have 7 measures aggregated in some levels of your dimensions tables?if yes,there is no possibility Bi goes anywhere else..(by choosing only these measures and the defined levels at your dimensions..)
One more thing,if you choose a combination of your 2 fact data sources,bi goes?where???
hope i helped...
http://greekoraclebi.blogspot.com/
Similar Messages
-
How many cpus on server are allocated to client
hello,
its not an issue rather doubt which is hunting me from last 2-3 days.
My 10gR2 Oracle database running on
Widows server 2008 R2 Enterprise
Processor ----> intel Xeon cpu [email protected] GHz (4 processor)
RAM------>8GB
its a dedicated server.
Actually i was going through the AWR report whn one of the client came to me with slow database performance during some time interval.
when i had a look at the Top 5 Timed Events in Report it showed me the
Sql*net message from client 834.35si told them to run their query so that i can have trace of that.
then time event showed me something nearer to above and our database was taking only 15 sec to carry out the task.
i told them that
"you application/client is taking 834 sec to tell our database to do something.But once the database got your application's request to carry out something, the database is taking only 15 sec to provide you with the result"
so they asked me to justify that the problem is with application side/machine side.
After digging in a lot on the internet ground, chatting with my colleges on cell phone and running through many threads specially Asktom.oracle.com, i got really confused.
They came up with varied opinions which kept me thinking again & again over the same thing.
In one of his(Thomas kyte) thread the discussion was as follows.
The output of tkprof when the developers run the same program on their PC shows a big difference in
SQL*Net message from client.
The SQL*Net message from client from my tkprof is almost 4-5 times theirs.
Could you please advise what might be the cause of that?
Thanks
Followup August 25, 2009 - 9am Central time zone:
that could mean.....
your machine is slow (their desktop cpus blow your server cpus away) as much as anything.
since their code is not instrumented, try SQL*Net trace (with TIMESTAMPS) can be helpful to check out the time in the network between the client and server. See Note 16658.1 - see if you experience radically different response times on the various machines.
4 stars August 25, 2009 - 2pm Central time zone
Bookmark | Bottom | Top
Reviewer: Jaklin Ekdawi
My Database server is T5120 with 4 core 1.2 GHz Ultra SPARC T2 processor (from O/S it is seen as 32
CPU * 1.2 GHz).
Their PC has 2 CPU * 4 Ghz.
Based on the above, How come their PC is more powerful than my server?
The ASH Report for the execution period of the program shows ¿CPU + Wait for CPU¿ is the top event,
however, tkprof shows ¿SQL*Net from client¿ is the top event waited on.
Top User Events
Event Event Class % Activity Avg Active Sessions
CPU + Wait for CPU CPU 81.66 0.14
log file sync Commit 5.92 0.01
db file scattered read User I/O 2.37 0.00
Can you please explain why there is a difference between tkprof and ASH report?
Thank You
Followup August 25, 2009 - 8pm Central time zone:
I only care about a single cpu, your client program is not using more than one.
I often downloaded stuff from my big bad sparc to my desktop because my desktop was many times faster than the sparc.
look further down in the ash report - sqlnet message from client is an idle wait, we tend to ignore it as it is the time we spent WAITING FOR THE CLIENT.
Their pc looks a lot faster than your server since you are only using a single cpu - your client is not multi-process. It only uses a single cpu.
4 stars August 25, 2009 - 2pm Central time zone
Bookmark | Bottom | Top
Reviewer: Jaklin Ekdawi
Sorry, I forgot to say that during the execution time the cpu on the server was 98-99% idle based
on (using top and sar).
Thanks
Followup August 25, 2009 - 8pm Central time zone:
I agree, because you could not use 31 out of 32 cpus, I would expect it to be almost idle.
97% idle would mean a single cpu was 100% used. So, it sounds like you were using almost 100% of that single cpu you had access to.
and it isn't as fast as their pc.
4 stars August 25, 2009 - 10pm Central time zone
Bookmark | Bottom | Top
Reviewer: Jaklin Ekdawi
The tkprof from the developer's PC is below
OVERALL TOTALS FOR ALL NON-RECURSIVE STATEMENTS
call count cpu elapsed disk query current rows
Parse 122 0.39 0.68 0 403 0 0
Execute 122 0.00 0.00 0 0 0 0
Fetch 396 0.09 0.11 0 25354 0 274
total 640 0.48 0.80 0 25757 0 274
Misses in library cache during parse: 122
Elapsed times include waiting on following events:
Event waited on Times Max. Wait Total Waited
---------------------------------------- Waited ---------- ------------
SQL*Net message to client 763 0.00 0.00
SQL*Net message from client 763 14.71 312.91
SQL*Net more data to client 122 0.00 0.00
The tkprof for the running the same process on Solaris DB Server
OVERALL TOTALS FOR ALL NON-RECURSIVE STATEMENTS
call count cpu elapsed disk query current rows
Parse 124 0.06 0.03 0 0 0 0
Execute 124 0.04 0.01 0 0 0 0
Fetch 400 0.07 0.10 0 802 0 276
total 648 0.17 0.15 0 802 0 276
Misses in library cache during parse: 1
Elapsed times include waiting on following events:
Event waited on Times Max. Wait Total Waited
---------------------------------------- Waited ---------- ------------
SQL*Net message to client 774 0.00 0.00
SQL*Net message from client 774 43.65 964.23
- On Solaris DB server, the CPU is 0.17, however, "SQL*Net message from client" is 964.23.
- On the developer¿s PC, the CPU is 0.48, however, "SQL*Net message from client" is 312.91.
Based on that, how I can approve it is CPU issue?
Followup August 26, 2009 - 7pm Central time zone:
how about this.
have the developers write something that mimics what they do without the database in it. Same sorts of loops and processing they do in the code in the client.
run it on their machine
run it on yours
You'll find your big bad server has cpu's that are extremely slow compared to the desktop machine.
Hence - the time spent waiting for sqlnet message from client is - time spent in YOUR client on YOUR server processing the data returned from the database.
saying "the cpu 0.17 on one and 0.48 on the other" is meaningless, they are completely different cpus with completely different performance characteristics.
And that you have 32 of them - no use to you, you use one..
It looks like your server is about 2-3 times slower then their test machine.
5 stars SQL*Net Message from client may not be an issue from the app May 28, 2010 - 8am Central time zone
Bookmark | Bottom | Top
Reviewer: Thierry B from Paris, France
Hi,
I just read your post as I experienced the exact same problem. I found something that fixed this
problem for me, my sqlnet.ora contained that line after an oracle upgrade:
TRACE_LEVEL_CLIENT=16
I don't know how it came there. But it was the cause of my problem (too long idle time). I simply
removed it and no more wait events.
I hope it can be of any help for anyone.
Followup May 28, 2010 - 8am Central time zone:
that is a client side issue though, isn't it. It is an application side issue, not a database side issue.
5 stars April 15, 2011 - 10am Central time zone
Bookmark | Bottom | Top
Reviewer: A reader in this thread Tom insisted that the client has access to only 1 CPU on the server even though the questioner told him that his machine is having around 32 CPU'S.
so this thread was the source of my confusion.
i kept asking myself "if the client application has access to one cpu out of 32 cpu's on the server on which the database server is running,then What is the use of multiprocessor? my oracle/client application has access to only one cpu on the server(like Tom said), what other 31 cpu's on the server machine are upto?if one cpu is getting exhausted by the client Application request, then what the other processor are doing ? are they not meant for load balancing?"
when i had a chat on cell phone with my colleagues regarding the oracle access to the cpu's on the server, then they told me that if there are more number of cpu's then the the response time would be fast cause workload is divided among the multiple processor to carry out the task in parallel.
Again i got confused with the deferring opinion..
so just want to have clarification on
* how many processes do i have access to on server machine where my oracle is installed?*
how many processes do the client applicaiton S/W/client machine have access to out of 32 processors?
is workload devided among the cpus on the server ,in case of huge request from the client application?
thanks & i hope my doubt would be clearedLook at it in basic terms (forgetting for the moment about Oracle and SQL*Net and specific s/w itself).
A process is loaded into memory. This process contains machine code instructions. How many CPUs can execute these instructions?
Only 1.
Simplistically. The process has a single execution pointer and set of CPU registers. A single CPU executes the instruction (as indicated by the execution pointer). The registers are used and updated.
The same CPU may not be used each time around. So a single process can during its lifetime, be executed by a number of CPUs. But a single CPU at a time.
A process can thread. This basically means that a second copy of the execution pointer and registers set are created. Each such copy will be executed by by a single CPU at a time.
An Oracle client is serviced by an Oracle server process (either dedicated or shared). On Linux/Unix systems, this will be a unique physical process. On Windows, it will be a unique thread.
This process is executed by a single CPU. Thus that client is serviced by a single CPU.
This changes when Oracle can use parallel processing and there are PX slave processes available. In that case, the client is serviced by a single process - but that process has in turn enlisted the assistance of helper processes. Thus the client is now serviced by multiple processes (or threads on Windows) and thus by multiple CPUs.
However, it is not that simple either. It is "cheaper" for the kernel to run threads on the same CPU than on different CPUs. The reason is the same memory is used by both and access to that memory by different CPUs is more complex (and thus more expensive and slower) than from the same CPU.
So depending on a number of factors, that client may still be serviced by a single CPU despite the fact that PX slaves are used. And from a client process perspective, this does not really matter. The crux of the issue in this regard is the CPU utilisation/footprint of that client process on the server.
If the clock time for a client process says "+running for 60s+" and the server says "+CPU time is 10s+", you cannot say that the process was not serviced by multiple CPUs. You do not know whether than 10s CPU time was for 5 processes each spending 2s to service that client.
However, when the server says "+CPU time is 70s+" - a longer period that the wall clock time of the client, then it is reasonable to assume that multiple server processes (and thus CPUs) are servicing that client process.
As for exactly how many CPUs are in fact used by the server? That has no real bearing on this. It does not change client-server behaviour.
Even Oracle does not know and does not care which CPU is servicing it. The correct piece of s/w to deal with that, is the kernel. Yes, you can bind a thread or process to a specific server CPU, but the reasons for this is quite technical and is always an exception. Let the kernel deal with which CPU to use. It is of no concern to the server s/w (like Oracle), and even less to the client process being serviced by that server s/w. -
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I had build a DSFW Lab and I want to try to write a procedure about how to remove DSFW Server that like server need hardware or crash...But I check the oficial document that seem not provide about how to remove....
Who could teah me or provide which document provide how to clean DSFW Server ?
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wyldkaoOriginally Posted by wyldkao
HI
I had build a DSFW Lab and I want to try to write a procedure about how to remove DSFW Server that like server need hardware or crash...But I check the oficial document that seem not provide about how to remove....
Who could teah me or provide which document provide how to clean DSFW Server ?
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wyldkao
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How to grant user permission to create "Credential" and "Proxies"
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Thanks in advance
SantoshCan I revoke this permissions once I grant?
You can use DROP and REVOKE commands to do the opposite.
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GO
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GO
USE [msdb]
GO
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GO
USE [msdb]
GO
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Content Management Server-Read/Write Access
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How to tell weblogic server which configuration I want to use
Hi Everyone,
I write the logmodule class, configuration class, Action class, client class
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I add the VM parameter when I start weblogic server
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But I don't know how to let weblogic server know my configuration class, so
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Some artical told me that add the configuration class name in java.security
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unfortunately, it don't work :(
I always got the exception message
No Configuration Class Name Supplied
Does anyone kindly tell me how to let the system know my configuration class
name?
Regards,
xlzhouHi,
we are facing the same problem, if you get the solution would you please help
us out?
Regards
Sudipto
[email protected] (Joe Zhou) wrote:
I almost got same problem.
I wrote a deme which is using jaas.
The client part:
Properties property = new Properties(System.getProperties());
property.put("weblogic.security.jaas.ServerURL",
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// Set configuration class name to load SampleConfiguration, the
//Configuration for the JAAS code example
property = new Properties(System.getProperties());
property.put("weblogic.security.jaas.Configuration",
"test.servlets.TestConfig");
System.setProperties(property);
// Set Configuration file name to load sample configuration policy
file.
property = new Properties(System.getProperties());
property.put("weblogic.security.jaas.Policy",
"C:/bea/wlserver6.1/config/mydomain/Test.policy");
System.setProperties(property);
loginContext = new LoginContext("TestPolicy", new
MyCallbackHandler());
The Test.policy:
TestPolicy
test.servlets.TestLoginModule required debug=true;
And I add "-Djava.security.auth.policy=%WL_HOME%\config\mydomain\Test.policy"
when I start weblogic server.
But when I run the code, I got the exception:
Invalid Configuration Class Name: test.servlets.TestConfig
java.lang.NullPointerException
at javax.security.auth.login.LoginContext.loadLoginModule(LoginContext.j
ava:101)
at javax.security.auth.login.LoginContext.<init>(LoginContext.java:54)
at test.servlets.TestSecure.doPost(TestSecure.java:69)
at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:760)
at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:853)
at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletStubImpl.invokeServlet(ServletStubIm
pl.java:265)
at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletStubImpl.invokeServlet(ServletStubIm
pl.java:200)
at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext.invokeServlet(WebAppSe
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at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletRequestImpl.execute(ServletRequestIm
pl.java:2039)
at weblogic.kernel.ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:139)
at weblogic.kernel.ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:120)
Seems the problem is in my TestConfig.
I just copy the SampleConfig.java as my TestConfig.java (modified a
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samples\examples\security\jaas\examples\security\jaas)
Any suggestion???
BTW, all the necessary classes is in the .war file.
Thanks in advance.
Joe
"Xiao Ling Zhou" <[email protected]> wrote in message news:<[email protected]>...
Hi Everyone,
I write the logmodule class, configuration class, Action class, clientclass
and my policy file my.policy.
I add the VM parameter when I start weblogic server
"-Djava.security.auth.policy=D:\bea\wlserver6.1/lib/my.policy"
But I don't know how to let weblogic server know my configuration class,so
that the server will create it when my client code create LoginContext
object.
Some artical told me that add the configuration class name in java.security
file, like the following
login.configuration.provider=mypackage.myConfig
unfortunately, it don't work :(
I always got the exception message
No Configuration Class Name Supplied
Does anyone kindly tell me how to let the system know my configurationclass
name?
Regards,
xlzhou -
InitialContext: How, exactly, does a server application create one
I'd appreciate somebody clarifying as to how exactly does a server application (specifically,
weblogic) get the default InitialContext(). One can write a new application and "drop"
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set in the JVM by whatever class starts the application going, or does it use "localhost"
and default port - in which case what if there are more than one servers running
on a machine?
Thanksnew InitialContext() gets initial context factory class name from the
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'weblogic.jndi.WLInitialContextFactory' when it starts) and PROVIDER_URL is null,
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You can take a look at the javax.naming.InitialContext JavaDoc to see where it gets
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http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.4/docs/api/javax/naming/InitialContext.html
Satish Gupta <[email protected]> wrote:
I'd appreciate somebody clarifying as to how exactly does a server application (specifically,
weblogic) get the default InitialContext(). One can write a new application and "drop"
it into an already running instance of weblogic server. This application should be
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and default port - in which case what if there are more than one servers running
on a machine?
Thanks--
Dimitri -
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[email protected]
[email protected]
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Any help will be much appreciated!
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F.Yes, it is Flavio.
There are other threads that claim you can disregard the manual in this respect. I tried disregarding it. It'll seem to work. Then within days users will complain of intermittent (1) "calendar not found", (2) "lack of permissions", and (3) "conflicts with client-side versus server-side" errors.
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hi all
how to find out server name in reports9i
i need the report server name to call a report
thanks
Edited by: vikas singhal on Nov 5, 2008 1:02 AMYou do not need to do anything, if your Report server is on the same machine as the Forms server (which is usually the case) you simply use the url as
/reports/rwservlet?report=myreport' and the server will automatically use the default report server.
then you simply use
web.show_document('/reports/rwservlet?userid=scott/tiger@orcl&report=myreport&desformat=htmlcss&desname=test.html'Tony
Try it now
Edited by: Tony Garabedian on Nov 5, 2008 2:00 PM -
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Hooray!! I followed your instruction and it works! Big thanks
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Dear sir
On my XP I TRY TO RUN REPORT WITH REPORT SERVER I GET ERROR
ERR:41213 , CAN YOU HELP ME , HOW TO INSTALL REPORT SERVER IN ORACLE 9I REPORT WITH XPHello,
Test to start the Reports server from a "DOS Window" :
rwserver server=repserver
(replace repserver by the reports server name you want top use)
Regards -
Hi,
I have apex 3.2 installed on O11g.
My email system hosted through gmail service.
Does any one know how to setup email server using hosted GMAIL?
ThanksHi "hlthanh",
The authentication is going to be an issue for APEX, as you can only specify an SMTP server which does not require authentication. I know - it is a limitation in APEX that I wish to address in APEX 4.0, but that doesn't help you right now. All I can suggest is to stand up a relay between APEX and GMail, have APEX push mail (unauthenticated) the relay and then use the relay to push it to GMail's SMTP.
Sorry I don't have a better suggestion.
Joel
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