Is this TRUE or FALSE ?

Hi all,
Pls tell me whether this sentence is true or false.
A transaction used by a BMT bean MUST have been started by the bean.
In book this question is marked as false, but as far as I think it should be true.
Pls update.
Regards,
Sanjeev

As it's written I would say it's true as well.
Bean-managed transactions are only allowed for session beans(stateful and stateless) and message-driven beans. Furthermore, if there is any client transaction context propagated on the call to the BMT bean, the container is required to suspend the client tx before calling the business method. So, BMT beans cannot inherit client transactions.
For BMT stateless session beans and message-driven beans, there cannot be an active user transaction when the business method completes. If there is, the container is required to treat it as an error.
The slightly more interesting case is for stateful session beans. For BMT SFSBs, it's o.k. for the transaction to still be active when the business method returns. In that case, the container suspends the tx and assoicates it with the SFSB. Whenever the SFSB is invoked again, the previously associated transaction is resumed before the business method is called. ( The same rule holds for client transactions. If there is one, it will be suspended and resumed when the business method completes. ) However, even if the container resumes a previously suspended transaction before invoking the SFSB, it can only be a transaction that was started by that bean.
--ken

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Message Edited by prisaz on 04-10-2009 08:09 AM
Message Edited by prisaz on 04-10-2009 08:09 AM

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