MR21 Reverse

Dear All,
How am i supposed to reverse MR21 - Price Change Document
I am unable to reverse in FI Module.
Kindly Guide Me...

Hi
If you have processed any documents with the new price, anyway you have to reverse the same since these documents have all posted with updated price to the relevant GL A/Cs.
If you have not posted any document with the new price simply again goto MR21 and give the old price.
Reward if useful,
Yuvi.

Similar Messages

MR21 auto reversed

Hi MM experts
I used MR21 to change cost of sales order stock,FI posting generated in current period,but one auto reversed document in next period generated at the same time,can somebody kindly advise me whats happen,thanks

HI
I mean to say if you Post MR21 in previous period, is this is the reason by which MR21 revrese the entry?.
Regards
Manoj

Reversal of Cost Price Update and Price Change MR21

Dear SAP experts
Recently (on 1st of this month) i did cost price update for all my FIG items. Later i realized that some of FG items cost price was not accurate. So i want to delete cost price of those items and update price by using T code MR 21
When i try to cancel these items cost price by using T code CKR1, i am getting error message that particular material current or future standard price is avialable and i am unable to move further
Please guide how to delete current cost price of these items and update cost price by using MR21. Please note these items does not have any BOM and basically are contract manufacturing items
Thanks in advance

Hi Vedsai
When you use CKR1, it does not give error.. It just gives a warning message
Enter your Plant / Mat in CKr1 and select "Current cost estimate" or "Future Cost Estimate" as the case may be
If any warning comes, ignore it and press enter.... It should reverse the cost estimate
Now update from MR21 or preferably use CK11N again
Note: If at all it gives any error in CKR1, check in T code OPR4_CK if this msg can be converted into warning message
Regards
Ajay M

Reversal of MR21

Hi
I have changed the Material Master Price in MR21. one accounting document generated for this.
i want to reverse that accounting no.
Please tell the procedure
thanks in advance
venkadesh

hi,
i don't think that you can reverse the accounting document generated via MR21. You will have to generate 1 more document to come to the original state
regards
prasanna

Price change before reverse document

I have a delivery document, suppose it when do vl01n, the cost will be inject into account document for the cost, may be MAV price. I would like to know, if i update the price using MR21, then reverse document. the document will use the new price or the old price. Thanks!

It is also important to know at what date you are performing MR21. If its current date then its ok. If its past date then there will be automatically reversal of MR21.

GR Reversal Problem

Dear Support,
I am facing a big problem while reversing the GR Document message"The Price for the Material will
be negative" Kindly suggest a solution at the earliest.
Message C+131 is coming .
Ragards
Mukesh

Hi Mukesh,
U may have changed price while doing transactions in sales or in procument.
This cause price change.Now check out MR21 & change the price.
This will solve ur problem.
Regards
Gitesh

Reversed the Goods movement before revesing the settlement of Order

Hello Gurus,
we are now facing a issue a user has reversed a material document through MBST before revesing the settelment for that production order and now we are not able to revese the document again.
did any one faced a similar scenario
can any one advice me what to do now without changing the price of materail through MR21?
Best Regrards,
Ravi

Hi
Can you explain step-by-step what did you do and what are trying to do now and whats the detailed error message?
Which doc are you trying to reverse again?
Plz mention what you did starting right from the creation of production order...
Regards
Ajay M

Peculiar peoblem regarding the Material Price Change Posting MR21

Dear Experts,
I have got a peculiar peoblem regarding the Material Price Change Posting.
The transaction Used is MR21.
When the document was posted then the system has generated 2 Accounting documents one in Fiscal Yr 2007 and the other in 2008.
In 2007 document posting date 31.03.2008 the a/c entry was RM Inventory A/c Debit to Consumption A/c Credit. This entry is ok . But the system has simultainously generated another document with posting date 01.04.08 and here the document has the reverse entry ..... RM Inventory A/c Credit to Consumption A/c Debit.
Both the document was generated against a single Price Change Document. Both of then (A/c Docs) have the same number.
I am unable to find any justification or any solution to this issue .....
This issue has a high priority as ma client has to prepair their quaterly Balance Sheet.
So Please help me out ..... save me.......
Thnx
Sankha

Hi,
Go to SPRO > MM > Valuation and Account Assignment > Configure Price Change in Previous Period/Previous Year > here check whether "Price carr.over" field is active for your Company Code.
It has following implications;
Price change: carried over from previous to current period: - Indicates whether price changes in the previous period or previous year are to affect the prices in the current period.
Use: - When you select this field, the price change is also valid for the current period.
If you do not select this field, the price changes in the previous period or previous year have no effect on the prices in the current period.
Note: - Please note that if you select this field, thus changing the price for the current period, it is not possible to reverse this change later.

Peculiar Issue regarding Material Price change T/c MR21.

Dear Experts,
I have got a peculiar peoblem regarding the Material Price Change Posting.
The transaction Used is MR21.
When the document was posted then the system has generated 2 Accounting documents one in Fiscal Yr 2007 and the other in 2008.
In 2007 document posting date 31.03.2008 the a/c entry was RM Inventory A/c Debit to Consumption A/c Credit. This entry is ok . But the system has simultainously generated another document with posting date 01.04.08 and here the document has the reverse entry ..... RM Inventory A/c Credit to Consumption A/c Debit.
Both the document was generated against a single Price Change Document. Both of then (A/c Docs) have the same number.
I am unable to find any justification or any solution to this issue .....
This issue has a high priority as ma client has to prepair their quaterly Balance Sheet.
So Please help me out ..... save me.......
Thnx
Sankha

Raise an OSS ticket and allow access to SAP to look in this issue, I will appreciate if you can share further on this issue.
Thx
Anand

MR21 and two FI documents

Hi,
I have a problem with MR21 transaction. When I enter the new price for the material using MR21, the system creates 2 separate FI documents. The first FI document looks like I expected and has the correct values and the correct posting date = 30.06.2008 but the second one reverse the values and has the posting date = 01.07.2008. Why does the system work in this way ?
Thanks in advance.
Zbigniew Debowski

Right now we have July, you only changed the price in the past, For June
So if your current price is different, then SAP has to do internally a second MR21 to get back the July price.
If you want change the July price as well, then you have to do yourself an MR21 for July.

MR21 - 2 accounting docs generated

Hi all,
 I have a question regarding MR21 - Price Change in MM.
 User has used MR21 to do price change. Since the business can only know the new price at month end, so user will only do MR21 on the following month. For example in the beginning of Nov, user will maintain new price for the month of Oct.
 Therefore, when he does price change in Nov, he puts posting date of Oct, since the price is still belongs to October's price.
 However, by doing this, at Finance side, there are 2 accounting documents generated with opposite entries (eg: 1st docs Dr Stock Cr Price Difference, 2nd docs Dr Price Change Cr Stock) which brings the balance to zero. This will then eliminate the required update in FI side.
 Questions:
1) Why by putting posting date in previous month will cause 2 accounting docs ? What is the logic behind this ?
2) If we put posting date of current month, how does system deem the price change is actually for previous month's ?
3) If user already caused 2 accounting entries, what should we do to correct it ? Reverse one of the entries ?
 Kindly advise.
regards,
Y T Lee

SAP values all inventory movements "real time"
Oct transactions were valued at the standard in place as each transaction happened.
When you use MR21 and back date the posting, SAP does 2 things:
1 - Revalues the inventory on hand at the the value entered into MR21
2 - revalues the inventory to "today's" standard
Example:
Part ABC, Standard on Nov 1 - $50/ea; inv on hand 100 value of inventory = $5,000
MR21 change standard to $40, posting date Oct 31
posting one is credit inventory $1000 dr price change $1000
Because the standard on Nov 1 is $50, the system makes a second posting to debit inventory $1000, crd price change $1000
1) Why by putting posting date in previous month will cause 2 accounting docs ? What is the logic behind this ? - The system "knows" that todays standard is $50 and brings the value back to that.
2) If we put posting date of current month, how does system deem the price change is actually for previous month's? it doesn't know that it is for the previous month
3) If user already caused 2 accounting entries, what should we do to correct it ? Reverse one of the entries ? If you want the Oct month-end inventory to be $40 and go forward in Nov with $40, you will need to make a second MR21 transaction with a posting date of "today" changing to $40, if the qty is still the same the price change in November will net to zero.

How do I use Sun Web Server 7.0u1 reverse proxy to change public URLs?

Some of our installations use the Sun Web Server 7.0 (update 1, usually)
for hosting some of the public resource and reverse-proxying other parts
of the URI namespace from other backend servers (content, application
and other types of servers).
So far every type of backend server served a unique part of the namespace
and there was no collision of names, and the backend resources were
published in a one-to-one manner. That is, a backend resource like, say,
http://appserver:8080/content/page.html would be published in the internet
as http://www.publicsite.com/content/page.html
I was recently asked to research whether we can rename some parts of
the public URI namespace, to publish some or all resources as, say,
http://www.publicsite.com/data/page.html while using the same backend
resources.
Another quest, possibly related in solution, was to make a tidy url for the
first page the user opens of the site. That is, in the current solution when
a visitor types the url "www.publicsite.com" in his or her browser, our web
server returns an HTTP-302 redirect to the actual first page URL, so the
browser sends a second request (and changes the URL in its location bar).
One customer said that it is not "tidy". They don't want the URL to change
right upon first rendering the page. They want the root page to be rendered
instantly i the first HTTP request.
So far I found that I can't solve these problems. I believe these problems
share a solution because it relies on ability to control the actual URI strings
requested by Sun Web Server from backend servers.
Some details follow, now:
It seems that the reverse proxy (Service fn="service-passthrough") takes
only the $uri value which was originally requested by the browser. I didn't
yet manage to override this value while processing a request, not even if
I "restart" a request. Turning the error log up to "finest" I see that even
when making the "service-passthrough" operation, the Sun Web Server
still remembers that the request was for "/test" (in my test case below);
it does indeed ask the backend server for an URI "/test" and that fails.
[04/Mar/2009:21:45:34] finest (25095) www.publicsite.com: for host xx.xx.xx.83
trying to GET /content/MainPage.html while trying to GET /test, func_exec reports:
fn="service-passthrough" rewrite-host="true" rewrite-location="true"
servers="http://10.16.2.127:8080" Directive="Service" DaemonPool="2b1348"
returned 0 (REQ_PROCEED)My obj.conf file currently has simple clauses like this:
# this causes /content/* to be taken from another (backend) server
NameTrans fn="assign-name" from="/content" name="content-test" nostat="/content"
# this causes requests to site root to be HTTP-redirected to a certain page URI
<If $uri =~ '^/$'>
 NameTrans fn="redirect"
 url="http://www.publicsite.com/content/MainPage.html"
</If>
<Object name="content-test">
### This maps http://public/content/* to http://10.16.2.127:8080/content/*
### Somehow the desired solution should instead map http://public/data/* to http://10.16.2.127:8080/content/*
 Service fn="service-passthrough" rewrite-host="true" rewrite-location="true" servers="http://10.16.2.127:8080"
 Service fn="set-variable" set-srvhdrs="host=www.publicsite.com:80"
</Object>
I have also tried "restart"ing the request like this:
 NameTrans fn="restart" uri="/data"or desperately trying to set the new request uri like this:
 Service fn="set-variable" uri="/magnoliaPublic/Main.html"Thanks for any ideas (including a statement whether this can be done at all
in some version of Sun Web Server 7.0 or its opensourced siblings) ;)
//Jim

Some of our installations use the Sun Web Server 7.0 (update 1, usually)please plan on installing the latest service pack - 7.0 Update 4. these updates addresses potentially critical bug fixes.
I was recently asked to research whether we can rename some parts of
the public URI namespace, to publish some or all resources as, say,
http://www.publicsite.com/data/page.html while using the same backend
resources.> now, if all the resources are under say /data, then how will you know which pages need to be sent to which back end resources. i guess, you probably meant to check for /data/page.html should go to <back-end>/content/page.html
yes, you could do something like
- edit your corresponding obj.conf (<hostname>-obj.conf or obj.conf depending on your configuration)
<Object name=¨default¨>
<If $uri = ¨/page/¨>
#move this nametrans SAF (for map directive - which is for reverse proxy within <if> clause)
NameTrans.. fn=map
</If
</Object>
and you could do https-<hostname>/bin/reconfig (dynamic reconfiguration) to check out if this is what you wanted. also, you might want to move config/server.xml <log-level> to finest and do your configuration . this way, you would get enough information on what is going on within your server logs.
finally,when you are satisfied, you might have to run the following command to make your manual change into admin config repository.
<install-root>/bin/wadm pull-config user=admin config=<hostname> <hostname>
<install-root>/bin/wadm deploy-config --user=admin <hostname>
you might want to check out this for more info on how you could use <if> else condition to handle your requirement.
http://docs.sun.com/app/docs/doc/820-6599/gdaer?a=view
finally, you might want to refer to this doc - which explains on ws7 request processing overview. this should provide you with some pointers as to what these different directives mean
http://docs.sun.com/app/docs/doc/820-6599/gbysz?a=view
>
One customer said that it is not "tidy". They don't want the URL to change
right upon first rendering the page. They want the root page to be rendered
instantly i the first HTTP request.
please check out the rewrite / restart SAF. this should help you.
http://docs.sun.com/app/docs/doc/820-6599/gdada?a=view
pl. understand that - like with more web servers - ordering of directives is very important within obj.conf. so, you might want to make sure that you verify the obj.conf directive ordering is what you want it to do..
It seems that the reverse proxy (Service fn="service-passthrough") takes
only the $uri value which was originally requested by the browser. I didn't
yet manage to override this value while processing a request, not even if
I "restart" a request. Turning the error log up to "finest" I see that even
when making the "service-passthrough" operation, the Sun Web Server
still remembers that the request was for "/test" (in my test case below);
it does indeed ask the backend server for an URI "/test" and that fails.
now, you are in the totally wrong direction. web server 7 includes a highly integrated reverse proxy solution compared to 6.1. unlike 6.1, you don´t have to download a separate plugin . however, you will need to manually migrate your 6.1 based reverse proxy settings into 7.0. please check out this blog link on how to set up a reverse proxy
http://blogs.sun.com/amit/entry/setting_up_a_reverse_proxy
feel free to post to us if you need any futher help
you are probably better off - starting fresh
- install ws7u4
- use gui or CLI to create a reverse proxy and map one on one - say content
http://docs.sun.com/app/docs/doc/820-6601/create-reverse-proxy-1?a=view
if you don´t plan on using ws7 integrated web container (ability to process jsp/servlet), then you could disable java support as well. this should reduce your server memory footprint
<install-root>/bin/wadm disable-java user=admin config=<hostname>
<install-root>/bin/wadm create-reverse-proxy user=admin uri-prefix=/content server=<http://your back end server/ config=<hostname> --vs=<hostname>
<install-root>/bin/wadm deploy-config --user=admin <hostname>
now, you can check out the regular express processing and <if> syntax from our docs and try it out within <https-<hostname>/config/<hostname>-obj.conf> file and restart the server. pl. note that once you disable java, ws7 admin server creates <vs>-obj.conf and you need to edit this file and not default obj.conf for your changes to be read by server.
>
I have also tried "restart"ing the request like this:
NameTrans fn="restart" uri="/data"
ordering is very important here... you need to do this some thing like
<Object name=default>
<If not $restarted>
NameTrans fn=restart uri from=/¨ uri=/foo.
</If>

How to ensure that an accrual (FBS1) that was cleared and reversed/reset (FBRA) does not affect the books while being in open items (FAGLB03)?

At first the user created an accrual using FBS1 for reversal on 5/1/2015.
This created a clearing document.
Then it was mistakenly reversed by the user for 5/1/2015 by using F.81
This also created a clearing document.
Based on advice in the following thread: Delete reverse accrual/defferal documents | SCN ,
the user used FBRA to reset and reverse the document. We are unsure if the reset and reverse command was used or just the reset choice.
Now the accrual value is in the respective accounts with an open status (i.e. red button). Does this mean that the entry has already been discarded and it won't affect the accounts? Or does one then use FB50 to reverse the effects of the accrual in the current and next month?

Hi
I guess that the user has not reverse the transaction as its still shows as open item in 30 /4 .. so I belive that you need to use fb50 or simply use FBR2 and enter the original entry no and the choose (generate reversal posting option )..
regards
mahmoud el nady

Miro Reversal and GR IR Clearing

Dear Friends,
Once Migo and Miro is done and subsequently the miro is reversed while doing auto clearing of GR IR Account, the system is knocking off the original migo and the original miro and leaving the reversed miro as open item instead of clearing the original miro against the reversal miro.
Is this a standard functionality due to cenvat issues or is there some other problem.
Please advice how to take care of the same.
Regards
Mukesh

This is standard only.
When cenvat is there it should be very carefull at the time of MIRO and reversal of same in the same month.
Manual clearing of MIRO & reversal of MIRO documents

DNS: reverse zone comes back after remove and some follow up issues

hello community,
after installation of OSL i had setup dns with a primary zone.
the automatically created reverse zone for my internal network is fine.
whenever i enter a new system the default for the ip address is 10.0.0.1 and the reverse zone is automatically setup for this ip address.
whenever i remove this reverse zone it come back automatically after saving the dns configuration.
with this come some follow up error.
server admin claim that there is no name server configured for this reverse zone.
when i configure it the configured name server entry vanished after clicking the save button.
when i try to configure settings i can not. i get the error message that the configuration can not be saved cause of the missing name server for the reverse zone i am not using ....
in the log file i can see that the file for reverse zone can not be found.
when i check the dns configuration in the shell i can see that the reverse zone file is not there.
someone has an idea
- whats the best way to fix this?
- why is the gui still showing the reverse zone i am not using?
- is the dns configuration also in the ldap db with wrong entries?
regards
christian

Clean out your zone definitions, and start over. Server Admin is unfortunately seemingly fussy around the authoritative server stuff and the order stuff gets entered, and it seems you can get into a sequence where it doesn't have what it needs. I had encountered couple of cases when I was in a similar state as you're in now, and I ended up clearing and deleting the primary zone and re-adding the zone and the hosts, being careful to add the authoritative server as the first step of adding a zone.

MR21 Reverse

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