Question about UoM conversion

I'm trying to implement the UoM conversion that is now standard in BI 7.0. I think I have all the backend work done, but I'm having trouble converting the UoM on the front end when running a query.
Here's what I did on the backend to set it up.
1- I went to 0MATERIAL (BEx Explorer tab) and entered 0BASE_UOM as the Unit field.
2 - I then generated the conversion ODS.
3 - I created transformation to the ODS using 0MAT_UNIT_ATTR. I did have to use a master data lookup for the BASE_UOM field (using the values in 0MATERIAL) since the 0MAT_UNIT_ATTR didn't have the Base Unit of Measure, just the conversion one.
4 - Loaded the ODS for 1 material (test material 1 EA = 1 EA and 1 KIT = 20 EA)
5 - Defined a Converstion type (trans RSUOM). I used Dynamic Option 3 (InfoObject, then T006 tables). I set the Source UoM = DataRecord, and Target is set to "Selection during Conversion"
Here's what I did on the query:
1. For my key figure, I went to the conversions tab. I selected my Conversion type.
2. I created a user entry variable with a default value of "EA".
When I run my report, I enter KITS on the selection screen, but the report still shows eaches. I can navigate to the Currency conversion on the report via the menus, but I can't find anywhere for Units.
Any ideas?
Thanks,
Rudy

First, is there any particular reason why you used:
Integer a = Integer.valueOf(1);while I used
Integer a = 1; //boxing
Just to get rid of boxing conversion as a possible issue--which it shouldn't be, but might as well keep it simple.
Integer a = Integer.valueOf(1);
Comparable<String> cs1 = a; // errorbecause we are assigning to a Comparable<String> an
Integer value, and that's illegal, since String and
Integer are not in a subtype relation (?)Something like that, yes. I'm not sure of the exact clause of the JLS that forbids it.
>
Comparable<Integer> ci = a; // ok
Comparable<String> cs2 = ci; // errorbecause we are assigning to a Comparable<String> a
Comparable<Integer>, and again, String and Integer
are not in a subtype relation (?)Yep.
Comparable<String> cs3 = c1; // warning
Comparable<String> cs4 = c2; // warningit's what I believe is called 'heap pollution' I forget what that term means, and am too lazy to look it up, so I'll take your word for it.
and I
believe that on first use a ClassCastException will
be thrown Sounds right. Run it and see for yourself.
(although the compiler behaves correctly by
flagging an unchecked warning, for compatibility with
legacy systems, etc)Right.

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Question about assignment conversion

JLS Third Edition, chapter 5.2 on page 93 and Discussion (p. 94), states that:
>
It is a compile time error if a chain of conversions contains two parametrized types that are not in a subtype relation.
And in the Discussion the following example is shown:
Integer -> Comparable<Integer> -> Comparable -> Comparable<String>
Which rocks, since Integer and String are not in a subtype relation. This is still possible because of support for legacy code (i.e. raw types).
However I wrote the following dummy code:
Integer a = 1;
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          Comparable c = ci;
          Comparable<String> cs = c;expecting the compiler to 'trace' the chain of conversions and throw a compile-time error, but all it did was to produce an unchecked conversion warning when the value of the reference variable c is assigned to the reference variable cs.
Isn't this in contrast with what stated by JLS?

First, is there any particular reason why you used:
Integer a = Integer.valueOf(1);while I used
Integer a = 1; //boxing
Just to get rid of boxing conversion as a possible issue--which it shouldn't be, but might as well keep it simple.
Integer a = Integer.valueOf(1);
Comparable<String> cs1 = a; // errorbecause we are assigning to a Comparable<String> an
Integer value, and that's illegal, since String and
Integer are not in a subtype relation (?)Something like that, yes. I'm not sure of the exact clause of the JLS that forbids it.
>
Comparable<Integer> ci = a; // ok
Comparable<String> cs2 = ci; // errorbecause we are assigning to a Comparable<String> a
Comparable<Integer>, and again, String and Integer
are not in a subtype relation (?)Yep.
Comparable<String> cs3 = c1; // warning
Comparable<String> cs4 = c2; // warningit's what I believe is called 'heap pollution' I forget what that term means, and am too lazy to look it up, so I'll take your word for it.
and I
believe that on first use a ClassCastException will
be thrown Sounds right. Run it and see for yourself.
(although the compiler behaves correctly by
flagging an unchecked warning, for compatibility with
legacy systems, etc)Right.

Question about capture conversion

Hi, relating to capture conversion and to the code below:
public static void reverse(List<?> list) {
          rev(list);
     private static <X> void rev(List<X> l) {
     }Am I right in saying that the <X> (or whatever else for that matter), it's just giving a name to whatever type will be passed by the reverse method? The syntax looks strange since we are declaring a type in a void method, and since I'm an old fashioned Java 1.4 programmer I find a bit difficult to accept this new syntax; additionally
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Message was edited by:
mtedone

First, is there any particular reason why you used:
Integer a = Integer.valueOf(1);while I used
Integer a = 1; //boxing
Just to get rid of boxing conversion as a possible issue--which it shouldn't be, but might as well keep it simple.
Integer a = Integer.valueOf(1);
Comparable<String> cs1 = a; // errorbecause we are assigning to a Comparable<String> an
Integer value, and that's illegal, since String and
Integer are not in a subtype relation (?)Something like that, yes. I'm not sure of the exact clause of the JLS that forbids it.
>
Comparable<Integer> ci = a; // ok
Comparable<String> cs2 = ci; // errorbecause we are assigning to a Comparable<String> a
Comparable<Integer>, and again, String and Integer
are not in a subtype relation (?)Yep.
Comparable<String> cs3 = c1; // warning
Comparable<String> cs4 = c2; // warningit's what I believe is called 'heap pollution' I forget what that term means, and am too lazy to look it up, so I'll take your word for it.
and I
believe that on first use a ClassCastException will
be thrown Sounds right. Run it and see for yourself.
(although the compiler behaves correctly by
flagging an unchecked warning, for compatibility with
legacy systems, etc)Right.

Question about unit conversion for BAPI_PO_CREATE1...

Hello Experts,
How do we bypass/supress the unit conversion in BAPI 'BAPI_PO_CREATE1'? Because what is happening
right now is for example, I input in 88CV it will convert it to 'EA' as this is defined as the
PO unit of measure. I want the 88 CV to be as it is.
Also, I am manually populating the net price(net_price) with my own value as I do not want to get
the net price from the info record. But it comes back as 0. I populate the 'X' fields as to let you know.

This conversion takes place due to SPRO setting
ask your functional people to do that
goo SPRO->reference img->sap netweaveer->check units of measurement
cheers
s.janagar

Question about file conversion in the sender file adapter

Hi, all.
I am trying to get the file adapter to parse a file. The message type is the following:
JOB
   Msg 0..1
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         Data   0 ... 1
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How would you define the recordset name and recordset structure to produce the same structure in the converted xml. I tried:
recordset name : Msg
recordset structure : Data, *
But the transaction is missing. I tried:
recordset name: Msg
recordset structure : Transaction, *
Then the data is missing. Note that the actual data in f1, f2 ... are loaded successfully though.
Thanks,
Jonathan.

Hi, Hareesh
I agree. But that is how it is defined now by someone else. It is hard to change it as he defines the same structure on the receiving side. I didn't want to change the receiving structure as it touches the proxy code too. So I want to make something short and sweet.
Basically the data looks like this:
11,222
55,666
The result xml should be something like:
<JOB>
<Msg>
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        <DATA>
           11
           222
        </DATA>
     </Transaction>
     <Transaction>
        <DATA>
          55
          666
        </DATA>
      </Transaction>
</MSG>
</JOB>
I know either the DATA has no meaning and it's giving me a headache ... but that's how it's done and I don't want to rock the boat too much. There are lots of mapping that I have changed otherwise.
Thanks,
Jonathan.

Just installed iOS6, questions about "iMessage" and other things...

I've been a satisfied iOS4 user since I bought my iPhone4, but I was forced to install iOS6 tonight in order to download a "free" app. I found a few new icons on the screen along with about 200 percent more "Settings" I'd like to ask some questions about. I'm sure a few of these could be answered by doing a frantic and thorough search through weeks of posts but I'm a little short on time right now.
First, what exactly is iMessage? Looking at the page for it, I can't see any difference between it and regular text messages. The info page says its to avoid charges, but between my data plan and not being charged for text I don't see where theres any other benefit. The one person I text with the most recently asked me why I had not installed iMessage yet, and didn't have an answer when I asked him why I should. I guess he just wanted to see text replies in blue instead of green.
In a related bit, flipping through Settings>Messages>Send & Receive I find a "2 addresses" section, with my phone number in there as well as my email under "You can be reached by iMessage at:" and "Start new conversations from:". What good does it do iMessages to have my email address? Does the Mail app handle text as well as email addresses? That seems to be the only explanation, and also very odd to think I'd be trying to text through my Mail app.
Second, looking through the Settings>Mail I see now that I have an icloud email address as well as the mac.com address I've been desperately hanging on to for the past 10 years, and the me.com address they've been trying to force me into since those came out. (I was happy to see I could delete the me.com address from the phone. I wish I could delete it from the universe.)
I wasn't even aware there was a such thing as icloud.com addresses. When did this happen? What is it used for?
Third, under that icloud Setting I see a long list of apps with buttons labeled "Off" under it. What are those for? Under the Mac.com settings I see switches for "Mail" and "Notes", with Mail on and Notes off. The Notes app (which I haven't used since my old iPhone 3) still opens, regardless of this setting.
Fourth, I now have an item called "Facetime" under my Settings. It is off, but underneath it says "Your phone number and/or email address will be shared with people you call". I understand caller ID normally sends caller number info to the receiver, but why would someone need my email address if I call them?
Fifth, I now have a "Music" setting, at the bottom of which I see a "Home Sharing" item, which when clicked brings up my AppleID and asks me if I want to Sign Out or Cancel. What is Home Sharing? Its also at the bottom of the "Video" settings.
Sixth, now I have Twitter and Facebook settings? For what? I don't have accounts with either of those companies. So why have settings, especially since it asks me to create accounts and download apps for those companies right in the Settings?
Seventh, there is a camera icon on the unlock screen. Touching it causes the screen to bounce up about a quarter inch, almost but not quite revealing something behind it. I should probably just quit asking about this stuff already, but I'll take the bait - what is this now?
Finally, what is the Notification Center used for?
If I got a text under iOS4, it would put an alert on the Unlock screen. Scrolling through this huge list of things under the Notification settings I'm really blown away by all the apps set up to yell at me. I can see having an alert for a text message but Game Center? What the heck is that, and why is it set up to hit me with a "Badge App Icon" (whatever that is) when I get alerts from "Everyone". Similarly, the phone is set to alert me to something called a "Photostream Alert"? What is this? Why is there a Phone section for the Notification Center? So they can put a Notice on my screen to tell me the phone is ringing? Holy cow! The phone is set to send me alerts from the "Weather Widget". So if I miss the fact its raining there will be a message on my screen to let me know? Whats next - a buzzer to tell me I'm listening to music?
There's a lot more, like what would I need Passbook for when I have the actual movie tickets, gate boarding passes, coupons, etc in my hands, but we'll leave that for another time. Many thanks to all who can offer some answers to my questions above.

Hey Taantumus!
Here is an article that will provide some guidance on this question:
Apple ID: Changing your password
http://support.apple.com/kb/ht5624
The next time you use an Apple feature or service that uses Apple ID, you'll be asked to sign in with your new Apple ID password.
Thanks for coming to the Apple Support Communities!
Regards,
Braden

Some question about International Travel

Ok so i know alot of people have question about international travel weather is USA to Canada, Canada to USA or where ever.
So i just got off the phone with someone from AT&T these are my questions for them. i hope it can help, im confuse myself.
*1. I travel recently travel to canada a few weeks ago, when i cross the boarder i switch the data roaming ON and it picks up Rogers Wireless, a few days ago i try i again it said NO SERVICE is something wrong with my iPad?*
NO, consider yourself lucky u didnt get charge for that roaming, your ipad well not work out of the US unless u buy one of our International plans that AT&T has provided. The reason for this is so you wont have any unwanted charge or high charge on your bill.
*2. If i was to buy a sim card from Canada and pop it in to my US ipad well it work?*
Honestly that's something you can try at your own risk, it's design for AT&T so by switching sim cards it may affect your ipad such as running slow, virus, crash. You can try it, i dont work for Rogers so i know nothing about them, i work for AT&T so i can only tell you about our plans and i wont lie to you.(I THINK U JUST DID) This ipad is not unlock just like the iphone so it well only work with AT&T.
*3. If i pop my sim card out and put in an international sim card well it affect my plan at all or in any way?*
Yes it can, right now your on the unlimited plan if you put in a different sim card and then re-put in ur AT&T one chances are you're going to loose your unlimited plan and have to settle for the newer plan. That's why AT&T has reduce it's international plans so people are more likely to use it. It's a contract we sign with Apple, if u want to use in canada you can always buy an Ipad in canada and use their plan. (***)
At the end of this conversion i was just more angry with them. All in all she told bottom line is dont do anything stick with AT&T and pay for international plans. So i have to pay over price data plan if i want to use it intertanional? or i have to buy an ipad for each international places i go to?
Has anyone try or done any of the 3 ive mention and did it affect ur plan or ipad in anyway?
Thanks
Andy

Ok so here's a little more info
I called AT&T again today asking them the same question the guy was more helpful then the one yesterday. Even though he kinda told me the same saying that the ipad need to be unlock. , Afterward he transfer me someone from Apple. The lady told me
1. The ipad is UNLOCK so dont bother trying to get it unlock.
2. she doesnt see why sticking in another sim card from one of the apple ipad carrier is a problem. U would just have to sign up activated it like u would when u first got it.
3. Contact phone company (my case Rogers) to see if they carry the mico sim cards.
4. She doesnt see why it would affect the current plan u have now.
So at the end of all that she told me, seem like AT&T is just telling you, you cant do this or u shouldnt do that is simple THEY WANT YOU TO USE THEIR PLANS.
so with that i said i just want to let everyone know. I'm gonna go pick my Micro sim cards from Canada in a bit and sign up for thier plan we'll keep everyone updated if anything change or how it work

A few questions about Patone colors

I have a few questions about patone colors since this is the first time I use them. I want to use them to create a letterhead and business cards in two colors.
1)
I do understand that the uncoated is more washed out than the coated patone colors. I heard that this is because the way paper absorbs the inkt. This is why the same inkt results in different colors on different paper (right?). My question is why is the patone uncoated black so much different than normal black (c=0 m=0 y=0 k=100) or rich black:
When I print a normal document with cmyk, I can get pretty dark black colors. Why is it that I cannot have that dark black color with patone colors? Even text documents printed on a cheap printer can get a darker color than the Patone color. It just looks way too grey for me.
2) For a first mockup, I want to print the patone colors as cmyk (since I put like 10 different colors on a page for fast comparison). I know that these cmyk colors differ from the patone colors and that I cannot get a 100% representation. But is there a way to convert patone to cmyk values?
I hope that some of you can help me out with my questions.
Thanks.

You can get Pantone's CMYK tints in Illustrator, (Swatches Panel > Open Swatch Library > Color Books > PANTONE+ Color Bridge Coated or Uncoated) but in my view, what's the point? If you're printing to a digital printer, just use RGB (HSB) or CMYK. Personally, I never use Pantone's CMYK so-called "equivalents."
Pantone colors are all mixed pigmented inks, many of which fluoresce beyond the gamut limits of RGB and especially CMYK. The original Pantone Matching System (PMS) was created for the printing industry. It outlined pigmented ink formulations for each of its colors.
Most digital printers (laser or inkjet) use CMYK. The CMYK color gamut is MUCH SMALLER than what many mixed inks, printed on either coated or uncoated papers can deliver. When you specify non-coated Pantone ink in AI, according to Pantone's conversion tables, AI tries to "approximate" what that color will look like on an uncoated sheet, using CMYK. -- In my opinion, this has little relevance to real-world conditions, and is to be avoided in most situations.
If your project is going to be printed on a printing press with spot Pantone inks, then by all means, use Pantone colors. But don't trust the screen colors; rather get a Pantone swatch book and look at the actual inks on both coated and uncoated papers, according to the stock you will use on the press.
With the printing industry rapidly dwindling in favor of the web and inkjet printers, Pantone has attempted to extend its relevance beyond the pull-date by publishing (in books and in software alliances, with such as Adobe) its old PMS inks, and their supposed LAB and CMYK equivalents. I say "supposed" because again, RGB monitors and CMYK inks can never be literally equivalent to many Pantone inks. But if you're going to print your project on a printing press, Pantone inks are still very relevant as "spot colors."
I also set my AI Preferences > Appearance of Black to both Display All Blacks Accurately, and Output All Blacks Accurately. The only exception to this might be when printing on a digital printer, where there should be no registration issues.
Rich black in AI is a screen phenomenon, unless in Prefs > Appearance of Black, you also specify "Output All Inks As Rich Black," -- something I would NEVER do if outputting for an actual printing press. I always set my blacks in AI to "Output All Blacks Acurately" when outputting for a press. If you fail to do this, then on the press you will see any minor registration problems, with C, M, and Y peeking out, especially around black type. UGH!
Good luck! :+)

UOM Conversion to be used in transformation

Hi Experts,
I am trying to make use of the BI 7.0 UOM conversion feature in one of our InfoCubes where the source quantity which is in Base UOM needs to be converted to cases.
I went through all the steps which are as follows:
1. I have 0BASE_UOM as the base unit of measure for 0MATERIAL
2. A DSO was automatically generated with the name Z_OUOM I gave in 0MATERIAL configuration
3. I created a transformation for this DSO with source as 0MAT_UNIT
4. Created a DTP and loaded the DSO
5. Created a Conversion type with settings 'Dynamic Determination of conversion factor as Using Reference InfoObject = 0MATERIAL
Source Unit of Measure: Unit of Measure from Data Records
6. Target Unit of Measure: Fixed Unit of Measure = 'CS'.
In InfoCube transformation I have the following mapping:
Rule type: Direct Assignment
Target Unit: 0UNIT
Unit: From Conversion
Conversion Type: ZCASES
Source Unit: 0BASE_UOM
Source Fields of Rule:
0MATERIAL
0REQ_QTY
0BASE_UOM
Target Fields of Rule:
ZREQ_QTY
0UNIT
When I load the InfoCube, the quantities are indeed getting converted to cases provided there are conversion factors available for that material in the UOM generated DSO
Here is my question: How can I handle records where the material does not have conversion factors in the UOM generated DSO?
I get an error when loading using a DTP as 'No quantity conversion possible'. There is one record in the source DSO that has a material number with no unit conversions in UOM generated DSO
I am aware there is an option of using routine, but I do not want to use it unless I am sure this method won't work

Hi Aditi,
There is no way you can check if UOM is present or not in UOM DSO and then do the conversion via using conversion type.
What you can do is write the routine rather than conversion type, to fetch the data from the UOM DSO.
If conversion factor exist then you can convert it simple by multiplying with the value, if not then you can easily skip the record by putting IF condition.
IF factor <> 0.
ENDIF.
Hope this helps.Let me know if you need more info.
Regards,
Viren

Mass deletion of alternative UOM conversion

Hi Colleagues,
Does anybody knows is there an easy way for mass-deletion of alternative unit of measure conversion rules in material master?
Thanks,
Artashes

I did the following way:
1. created a recording which always deletes the second line in Additional data-> uom conversions.
2. by multiply running this recording via lsmw will delete all uoms.
3. I was not able to do it at once as different materials has different numbers of alternative uom entered.
Thanks,
question closed.

Basic questions about Exchange Rate Differences

Hi Experts?
I have few questions about exchange rates:
1. Currently in 2007, under what circumstances are exchange rate differences not posted automatically? In the previous version, it was this case when invoices are linked to payment, and manual exchage rate differences had to be run.
2. What are unrealized exchange rates? and When do unrealized exchange rates occurs?
3. In account oo logical pinciples, why is there a need to auto reverse Exchange rate differences or Conversion rate differences during the opening of a new posting period??
Much Thanks!
Warmest Regards,
Chinho

Hi Chinho,
you may find useful info in this wiki:
[How does SAP Business One deal with Realised and Unrealised Exchange Rate Differences? |https://wiki.sdn.sap.com/wiki/pages/viewpage.action?pageId=60654139]
& also these 2 EES:
[Exchange Rate Differences|https://psd.sap-ag.de/PEC/calendar/html/recording.php?hck=7a4f07ef7ac81ec31e04d55faffe33bdde93ec2398c338760e0d98adab7ba5acf2c39b2da1782f45e8a5a4d337dedcc647afebddd531782af42bafae98ce7ed5]
[Exchange Rate|https://psd.sap-ag.de/PEC/calendar/html/recording.php?hck=e5397f14c44f8df754617194051dab1ad38f59f08580406c2efd59aa4c0f71616713c2abe76bc503e08f2f5eda4863634f6fe99ad39d46c947c09623b91e53ca]
As a rule, in version 2007 it's the unrealised exchange rate differences on the BP side that are relevant since with the introduction of the unified internal reconciliation engine realised partial exchange rate differences are automatically posted. You also use the functionality to post exchange rate differences for FC GL accounts at a particular execution day.
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Incorrect UoM Conversion on Transfer Requirement from Production Order

I have a Question on a Production Order that created a Transfer Requirement. Looking at the Components of the BOM within the Production Order, I have a Material where the Issue Unit of Measure is QT and the Base Unit of Measure is EA, with a Quantity of 1. In the Material Master Alternate Unit of Mesaures, the Conversion is setup so that 1 QT = 1 EA. The question of why the 1 for 1 conversion is not relevant, as this is just how the material was setup and I know it does not make any sense. When the Transfer Requirement is created it is showing that 1 Qt = .25 EA. I am unable to locate where this conversion is coming from. We do not want to lose visibility of this part number, as creating a new part number with a Base Unit of Measure of QT would fix the problem.
Is there anywhere in configuration where there could possibily be a Conversion? I have looked at Control Cycles and the Reference Operation Set and do not see anything.

Closing Thread as there has been no responses but I am still looking for a solution. The only possibility that exists at this time is the material was copied from another material and the UoM Conversion was 1 QT = 4 EA on the Copy From Material. I can not see where any changes were made to the unit measure conversion for the new material. The only other possibility is the Production Order was manually converted to the new material incorrectly.

From USB to IEEE-1394: question about HD capture, editing, sharing.

I’m new to editing video but have a question about capturing video into Premiere Elements 7. I have been using a Canon HF11 which shoots only in HD and only has USB output to copy video to my desktop. I don’t have a Blu-ray burner yet but I have burned a few projects to DVD, shared video on YouTube, and saved files in .avi and .mpeg to view on computer screens. But obviously I’m missing out on sharing HD on disk at this time. I just bought a Canon XH A1s which shoots both HD and SD on miniDV tapes. And uses IEEE-1394 cable for capturing (to Pre7). I did a 3 minute test project in SD and burned it on a DVD disk. I was very pleased at the results and the ease of editing. I don’t have any HD tapes yet, but when I do what differences will I experience from shooting in HD and then capturing, editing, then to sharing? My current HD processes with the HF11 is slow, occasional low-resources warnings, and less then pleasing results on DVD disks. Thanks for any and all comments and/or suggestions.

Your HF11 is AVCHD format and the Canon XH A1 is HDV MPEG2. AVCHD takes a lot more computer horespower to edit compared to HDV MPEG2... main reason being that AVCHD is more highly compressed giving small file sizes. This is also why you get the low resource and memory alarms while editing.
To shoot HD you do not need HD miniDV tapes you can use the standard miniDV tapes. However the HD tapes are supposed to give fewer drop-outs than the standard tapes but are considerable more expensive. With DV-AVI a drop out would be hardly noticed, but as HDV MPEG2 is a compressed format and the picture relies on information in a number of frames any drop-outs can give a second or so of bad video. That said I have had very few issues with drop-outs. If you are doing a wedding or something important that you do not want to risk then probably better to use a HD miniDV tape.
In the past the advise has been to capture in high definition to get the best quality and then downconvert in the camcorder and capture in DV-AVI... the reason being that older versions of Premiere Elements did not do a good job of the down conversion. Reports on PE7 indicate it is better and that you could use a HDV workflow and burn to DVD as a last stage. This also allows you to export a high definition version of your video to view on a monitor where you can appreciate the higher resolution. Or in the future when you have a Blu-ray burner and player you can burn the file to disc... save doing all the editing all over.

Tcode /SAPAPO/TSCUBE - UOM conversion

Dear All,
I would like to know about how the value of a key figure is copied from the infocube to a DP planning area using tcode /SAPAPO/TSCUBE.
I have the following scenario.
Infocube has key figure value as 2000 EA,
The planning area UOM is ST
Product Master base UOM is EA
Product Master alternate UOM has 1 ST = 5 EA
When I execute the tcode /SAPAPO/TSCUBE to copy data from the cube to the planning area, the value is copied as 2000 ST which means no conversion of the UOM in cube to the UOM of planning area takes place. It should ideally convert 2000 EA to 400 ST using the alternate UOM in product master.
Is this how the program functions such that it only copies the key figure value ignoring the conversion factor between UOMs of infocube and planning area?
Any ideas?
Thanks in advance
Ehsan Ahmed

Hi
Yes it works as you are expecting. It should read the data from product master base UOM. To enable, you must have the characteristic assigned to the product in the POS and then maintain UOM conversion in the product master (you get the description as well).
There are some gotchas...you can convert at a 'higher' level, but every product must have a UOM conversion for the UOM you wish to convert to, otherwise it might not work.
Hope this helps...
Thanks
Amol

Basic question about storage and safety in iMovie '11

A very basic question about storage and safety:
I want to keep a backup of my raw footage on my external hard drive prior to begin working on the movie in iMovie. I want to do this:
1. Upload the digital files from my camcorder to my Desktop *(as opposed to iMovie)*
2. Duplicate that footage/clips.
3. Put the duplicate clips/footage into a folder labeled with the name of that footage (like "Fun At the Dentist" or "Jimmy Learns How to Yodel").
4. Drag the folder with the footage/clips into my external hard drive into a pre-existing folder titled "Backups/duplicates of all of my raw footage/clips." This big granddaddy folder will house all of the child folders of different movies.
5 Then, open up iMovie '11 and import the raw footage/clips from my Desktop rather than from my camcorder.
6. Then I want to make a duplicate of my finished movie and put it in my external hard drive in a "Finished Movies" folder.
I know that the original raw unedited footage will always be in iMovies '11 but I want the original to also exist immediately accessible in my external hard drive.
QUESTION:
Is this viable? Is it wise? (I know it goes an extra unnecessary step, but aside from that.)
*Do you have any precautionary advice?* Should I do something in my iMovies '11 preferences? What?
In earlier years with iMovie '04 or '06 (cannot recall) I made many novice errors and ended up losing audio to my finished movie. I also lost footage.
This time around with iMovie '11 I don't to make such novice, ignorant errors.
Thanks so much for any comments to this question.
-L

Yes I'm sure it will work great for you.
The iFrame format is something Apple has come up with. The reason for its existence is unknown to me so I can only speculate. But it seems to me that Apple "invented" this format in order to have devices such as Ipod/Ipad/Iphone/Ixxx create clips that are editable on consumer hardware such as already mentioned devices but also standard Mac computers, without the need for format conversion.
iMovie converts most input formats during import, which takes a lot of time, and this need for conversion often comes as a surprise to most people new to home video editing.
iFrame has a resolution of 960x540 which is long way from the common standards of 1920x1080 and 1280x720. If your end target is YouTube however, this may not be too bad though. However if you intend to go with YouTube HD, you may find iFrame footage to look wrong since they are effectively upscaled to a higher resolution.
Technically iFrame uses the H.264 algorithm, a smaller frame size (960x540) and a rather low compression scheme. This will result in large files, but the plus side is that the files are ready for editing without the need for any conversion and iMovie will natively edit the files.

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