RG1 Balance Updation

Hi SDities,,,,
Am facing an issue regarding RG1 opening & closing balance balance.
If i take the excel extract am getting only quantities manufactured,Removal from factory quanties & Excise duties rate & values. one more thing if i opt for script extraction in j2i6 , am getting out put but not getting any values in that extract.
I heard for RG1 op. & cl. bal activation we have to go to SE16 & have to give these table names j_2irg1bal or j_1irg1 & the same to be done for each materials. Is it so?? if so which table name i ve to select & process??
Kindly revert to me at the earliest.
Thanx & Regards,
Raashith HH

Hi,
suppose if u take the print out for RG1 we can see the quantity wise only. we can't find any excise duties in that.
suppose if u want to check the table is updating or not , go to T.Cose SE11 give J_1IRG1 in Database table and select Disply button. After taht select the Content icon. Here u can find the Quantity and the Excise duties . this is only for our refernce only . no need to tell the users.
regards,
jyothi.

Similar Messages

RG1 Register Updated Error

Dear All,
I have select Movement Type is 601 and Classification is IWO and select the RG1 option.
Next i go select the view list of items and simulate the list. All the items are marked in red color. I do not know.
Please kindly to give the clear process for RG1 .
Thanks
Saro

Just wanted to know, 1)whether you are using this functionality for the first time or
                                    2)it was updating the RG1 register earlier but it is not updating now.
If your answer is 1), .......
                                         A) You need to maintain the necessary settings related to movement types relevant for updating RG1 register
                                         B) Check that whether RG1 balance is uploaded RG1 opening balance table
                                         C) You need to update the RG1 inward entries before updating the outward entries
                                         D) Check whether classification IWO is relevant for RG1 updation or not
If your answer is 2), .......
                                        A) Check the RG1 balance
                                        B) Check all movement types associated with inward entries relevant for RG1 are maintained in customizing
                                       C) Check classification IWO is relevant for RG1
Let me know if it resolves your issue

How RG1 reg update?

HI..Gurus,
How RG1 reg Update? Wt is the T.Code for that. ?What are the pre-requisites that are needed.?
regards,
jyothi.

Hi Jyothi
The sequence is like this:
1. In SE16, enter Table name: J_2IRG1BAL, and click on Create. Enter the material Number and 'P' in Material form (Loose/Pack indicator) and click 'Save'. This step is to be done only for the first time.
2. Do your Initial Stock entry in MB1C, movement type 561
2. Go to J1I5, select Posting Date, Document Year and 'ROP in Classification (Receipt from outside under any other provision). Click on Create icon (Register entry)
4. Go to J2I5 and extract the RG1 Register. You must get a green checkmark.
5. After doing the PFI, go to J1I5, select Posting Date, Document Year and Classification 'IDH' (For domestic sales) or 'IDE' if the first removal is for Export Sale. Based on the accounting document generated during PGI (MB03) the RG1 Register gets updated with the removal for Outbound Delivery.
6. Reextract the RG1 register in J2I5. You must get a green checkmark.For the RG1 Register printout, go to J2I6, select the option, 'Script Form' and hit 'Execute.
All this was in OSS Note: 373001.
Ramana ND
PS: You must have maintained the Number range Object J_1IRG1 (RG1 Register)

Enough RG1 balance is not available to issue the Goods

Hi All
I am getting this error when I run "India - Excise Invoice Generation" Request by entering the Delivery Id. The Log file of the request showing this error ORA-20199: Enough RG1 Balance is not available to issue the Goods. But when I check the on hand quantity exists. Quantity is available even after reservation and shipping is done.
Can anyone please tell me the reason and resolution if you had faced this error before.
Thanks in Advance
Prem.

Process steps are as below .
Material master with base unit "SHT-Sheet" and maintained alternative unit "M2- Square Meter" along with conversion factor 4930 M2 = 100 SHT. Incoming quantity inspection type (01) is also active on the material.
Purchase Order quantity in alternative UnM like 1500 M2.
Purchasing Info Record maintained with alternative pricing Unit “M2”.
Good Receipt Quantity posted in the alternative Unit of Measure with 1500 M2.
Usage decision recorded with Base unit Quantity 30.426 SHTs
Error - PU GR blocked stock exceeded by 0.002 SHTs : 2847 1000 M7 22
Cause of error which i observed is below.
On usage decision, system calculating stock posting quantity "30.426" / Conversion factor "( 100 / 4930 )" = 1500.002 and this quantity "1500.002" exceeded from block stock quantity 1500 as posted at the time of GR in the block stock via 103 mvt.

RG1 Register Updation Problem-

Hello,
we are having two plants, both are manufaturing plants. having same excise group and Excise registration number. Actualyy both the plants are situated at same place. M001 is linked to M001 company code and M002 plant linked to M002 Company code.
M001 plant Receive the Finished good from Shop floor via Production oder and Rg1 register updated through J1I5 t code.
Now Business wants to do Stock transfer for moving of FG material to M002 plants for sale from M001 plant. Every material will sales from M002 plant. Business is making STO from M001 to M002 Without excise .
How to Update RG1 Register in M002 plant. Received entries updated in M001 company code RG1 Register and but sale from M002 plant how to update Rg1 register.
Regards
Mahesh

Hello
301 movement type is assigned to RG1 register and
Material and Chapter ID and material Type "RG1" mainatined in J1ID....
We have transffered the material from M001 company code to 9001 through MB1B with movement type 301.
system is not showing any documents here for updation of RG1 register through J1I5.. here clssification selected is "RMA" receipt from Manufature"
Mahesh

Excisie duty updation problem during RG1 register update

Dear All,
During updation od RG1 register, excise duty has not been updated in Rg1 register. Transactional entry updated but Exice duty/ ecs/ CEss is showing zero value.
It happened with two materials only. all excise master data has been maintained for that material.
What will be reason ?
Your valuable reply is appreciated. Thanks
Regards
Mangesh

Hi Mangesh,
I hope you are using the std transaction J1I5 for RG1 Register update.
Normally we update the RG1 Register using the material documents.
So check whether for the material documents which you updated whether an excise invoice has been created or not ? because std - J1I5 transaction doesnt check the same.
If you have updated the RG1 register after creating the excise invoice for the above materials doc's then excise value will be updated in the same.
IF its not happening then check if any SAP notes are available.
Hope its clear.
Regards,

In ecc6 opening balance updation

hi
plz tell me what is procedure of opening balance updating, in AA,AP,AR,GL
THANKU
sowmay

FAGLGVTR - G/L: Balance Carried Forward - All entries made with entry date post financial year end but for closed financial period balance will be carried forward automatically....

RG1 register opening balance and closing balance updation

Hi All,
We are using the RG1 register recently i.e. after the Functional Upgrade (ECC 6.0). While executing J2I6 RG1 Excel report, opening balance and closing balance is not appearing in the report even though we have done the J1I5 extraction.
Is it mandatory to update the J_2IRG1BAL table with zero stock as and when the new material codes are created.
Regards,
Praveen

HI
Yes it is mandatory to update the table J_2IRG1BAL with material form and opening stock etc. for all the new materials
EXGRP: Excise group of the material
DATUM: Date from which you want RG1 report i.e. 01.01.2004
MATNR: Material
FORM: P for packed, L for loose. note that the same material cannot be maintained as both packed and loose.
WERKS: Leave it blank
Maintain all relevant opening balance fields. These fields start with OP
Note 951955 - CIN: General clarifications for RG1 goods*
check the above note
regards
Prashanth

What kind of hit for carrying balances [update 7/3]

I've been keeping my utilization way low, with most accounts reporting zero, and the others reporting nominally, so that my utilization has been about a third of a percent. This week I decided to get some postponed dental work done, and to pay for it with some zero-interest-rate cards and not worry so much about the FICO scores. And I'm considering letting the balances ride for awhile, not paying them off totally, and letting my reported balances go up to the neighborhood of 5% overall utilization, with the zero interest cards just under 30%. How much of a hit can I expect on my FICO scores if I do in fact let my utilization go from a third of a percent to five percent? Even if you tell me I can expect a bad hit, I might do it anyway, just as an experiment...My scores are of only academic interest at this point since I should be gardening at this stage of the game. But I do wonder what lies ahead. Updates: 5/17 Started May 16th with: 10 accounts at zero balance, 3 accounts posting total balance of $241, representing less than .3% overall utilization Over the next 5 days, I allowed 3 of the 13 revolving accounts to post a total of $1524.33, for 1.7% overall utilization, with individual account utilization ranging from 2.13% to 49%. 5/22 EX dropped 2 points. 5/29 Balances up to $2700, representing 3% overall. No other score changes yet. 6/3 The entire $2700 has been reported to TU, and my TU score has not budged. 6/5 As of today I'm up to $3500, for 3.9% overall utilization. My only FICO change so far has been -2 on EX. But both my FAKO scores at Credit Karma just dropped 5 points, which makes me nervous. So I will probably let it peak at 3.9% and start bringing the numbers down now. 6/8 Boom! EQ FICO dropped 11 points! 6/11 No new change in scores. 6/17 will start reducing utilization 6/16 30 days from the start of my experiment: EX -2, EQ - 11, TU - No change 6/24 down to 2% overall utilization, no change 6/27 Today TU dropped 3. After my utilization dropped from 3.9% to 2%. Go figure. 7/3 OK now I'm back down to .3% overall utilization, right where I started on 5/16. No further change in scores....yet.

NRB525 wrote:
There should not be much change by having your utilization go to 5%, as far as how it affects your score. I would suggest, though, that you are in a phase with your cards where you do not want to pay before statement cuts on any cards. I'm guessing you got a number of cards recently, thus the gardening mode. As you try to build your relationship with those CCC, they SP you periodically to see how your file is working. If you don't show any activity on many of your cards, they may be a little concerned. If they see a steady flow of PIF activity on most or all your cards, they will see a potential profitable customer and are more likely to not overreact if you start using their card more. There is something to be said for acting boldly and showing you can handle debt and payments. As to the 0% APR on the dental work, that's a way to show you can take on debt and pay it back, with no cost to you. This is another behavior you want all your CCC to see, to make them more comfortable with your file. The "All cards at zero but one" is fine for absolutely tweaking the last point out of your score (and thats about all I think it gets the cardholder). As a long term way to build the confidence of your several CCC so they don't overreact? In my opinion, it is not helpful to hide your good payment activity by this pay before statement cuts method. Your long term relationship with the cards you do have, that is your main goal now, not getting a bunch more cards. As your file ages and these cards show activity, adding the one or two other cards you want later, will be a cake walk, regardless of FICO score. By the time you get to adding the one or two other cards, your scores will have risen nicely anyway, even if you show PIF balances paid by the statement due date, boldly broadcasting that activity for all to see. Good luck!Thank you for all that good stuff. I have some questions: "As you try to build your relationship with those CCC, they SP you periodically to see how your file is working. If you don't show any activity on many of your cards, they may be a little concerned". They would take a zero statement balance on an active account as a sign that there was no activity? " If they see a steady flow of PIF activity on most or all your cards, they will see a potential profitable customer and are more likely to not overreact if you start using their card more. " By "PIF activity" you mean "PIF after letting a statement balance show" activity? "As to the 0% APR on the dental work, that's a way to show you can take on debt and pay it back, with no cost to you." They would know that it was promotional interest rate borrowing? "The "All cards at zero but one" is fine for absolutely tweaking the last point out of your score (and thats about all I think it gets the cardholder). As a long term way to build the confidence of your several CCC so they don't overreact? In my opinion, it is not helpful to hide your good payment activity by this pay before statement cuts method." Well basically "tweaking the last point out of [my] score" is what my question is about. I know that making my present credit card banks happy isn't impaired by my using their cards a lot so long as I pay them off. My question only relates to what kind of temporary hit my FICO scores will experience in the process. "Your long term relationship with the cards you do have, that is your main goal now, not getting a bunch more cards." Well I don't know about that; some of my cards aren't as good as others,, and none are low interest. Some have exorbitant balance transfer and cash advance fees. I would like to have some other cards which charge lower interest rates.

What kind of hit for carrying balances [update 6/24]

I've been keeping my utilization way low, with most accounts reporting zero, and the others reporting nominally, so that my utilization has been about a third of a percent. This week I decided to get some postponed dental work done, and to pay for it with some zero-interest-rate cards and not worry so much about the FICO scores. And I'm considering letting the balances ride for awhile, not paying them off totally, and letting my reported balances go up to the neighborhood of 5% overall utilization, with the zero interest cards just under 30%. How much of a hit can I expect on my FICO scores if I do in fact let my utilization go from a third of a percent to five percent? Even if you tell me I can expect a bad hit, I might do it anyway, just as an experiment...My scores are of only academic interest at this point since I should be gardening at this stage of the game. But I do wonder what lies ahead. Updates: 5/17 Started May 16th with: 10 accounts at zero balance, 3 accounts posting total balance of $241, representing less than .3% overall utilization Over the next 5 days, I allowed 3 of the 13 revolving accounts to post a total of $1524.33, for 1.7% overall utilization, with individual account utilization ranging from 2.13% to 49%. 5/22 EX dropped 2 points. 5/29 Balances up to $2700, representing 3% overall. No other score changes yet. 6/3 The entire $2700 has been reported to TU, and my TU score has not budged. 6/5 As of today I'm up to $3500, for 3.9% overall utilization. My only FICO change so far has been -2 on EX. But both my FAKO scores at Credit Karma just dropped 5 points, which makes me nervous. So I will probably let it peak at 3.9% and start bringing the numbers down now. 6/8 Boom! EQ FICO dropped 11 points! 6/11 No new change in scores. 6/17 will start reducing utilization 6/16 30 days from the start of my experiment: EX -2, EQ - 11, TU - No change 6/24 down to 2.4% overall utilization, no change 6/27 Today TU dropped 3. After my utilization dropped from 3.9% to 2.4%. Go figure.

NRB525 wrote:
There should not be much change by having your utilization go to 5%, as far as how it affects your score. I would suggest, though, that you are in a phase with your cards where you do not want to pay before statement cuts on any cards. I'm guessing you got a number of cards recently, thus the gardening mode. As you try to build your relationship with those CCC, they SP you periodically to see how your file is working. If you don't show any activity on many of your cards, they may be a little concerned. If they see a steady flow of PIF activity on most or all your cards, they will see a potential profitable customer and are more likely to not overreact if you start using their card more. There is something to be said for acting boldly and showing you can handle debt and payments. As to the 0% APR on the dental work, that's a way to show you can take on debt and pay it back, with no cost to you. This is another behavior you want all your CCC to see, to make them more comfortable with your file. The "All cards at zero but one" is fine for absolutely tweaking the last point out of your score (and thats about all I think it gets the cardholder). As a long term way to build the confidence of your several CCC so they don't overreact? In my opinion, it is not helpful to hide your good payment activity by this pay before statement cuts method. Your long term relationship with the cards you do have, that is your main goal now, not getting a bunch more cards. As your file ages and these cards show activity, adding the one or two other cards you want later, will be a cake walk, regardless of FICO score. By the time you get to adding the one or two other cards, your scores will have risen nicely anyway, even if you show PIF balances paid by the statement due date, boldly broadcasting that activity for all to see. Good luck!Thank you for all that good stuff. I have some questions: "As you try to build your relationship with those CCC, they SP you periodically to see how your file is working. If you don't show any activity on many of your cards, they may be a little concerned". They would take a zero statement balance on an active account as a sign that there was no activity? " If they see a steady flow of PIF activity on most or all your cards, they will see a potential profitable customer and are more likely to not overreact if you start using their card more. " By "PIF activity" you mean "PIF after letting a statement balance show" activity? "As to the 0% APR on the dental work, that's a way to show you can take on debt and pay it back, with no cost to you." They would know that it was promotional interest rate borrowing? "The "All cards at zero but one" is fine for absolutely tweaking the last point out of your score (and thats about all I think it gets the cardholder). As a long term way to build the confidence of your several CCC so they don't overreact? In my opinion, it is not helpful to hide your good payment activity by this pay before statement cuts method." Well basically "tweaking the last point out of [my] score" is what my question is about. I know that making my present credit card banks happy isn't impaired by my using their cards a lot so long as I pay them off. My question only relates to what kind of temporary hit my FICO scores will experience in the process. "Your long term relationship with the cards you do have, that is your main goal now, not getting a bunch more cards." Well I don't know about that; some of my cards aren't as good as others,, and none are low interest. Some have exorbitant balance transfer and cash advance fees. I would like to have some other cards which charge lower interest rates.

Excise register balance update

Sir,
Our client uses FI JV for excise duty utilization instead of standard transaction J2IUN. As a result the balance in Ex registers RG23A/C part 2 is showing excess amount than actual. Part 1 register is updated through J1I5. How to correct balance in part 2 register.
Thanks in anticipation.

HI,
Inorder to correct the Excise Register balance you have to pass a Excise JV using transaction J1IH other adjustments..
Regards,

Cash Sale - Cash Balance Update.

Hi,
While doing the Cash Sale, Cash Balance is not getting updated.
Before posting this I have gone thru the forum and made some changes accordingly(in OV77).But even then Cash Acct in not getting updated.
In one of the answers it is mentioned to give the Acct Key as EVV.where this to be done,in Pr.Procedure or any other setting.
Please guide.
Regards
Vijay.

Hi,
Maintain account key EVV both in pricing procedure and Billing document type and then see the results.
Can you just check with FI colleagues the G/L account you maintained in VKOA for EVV account key is cash sales account or not?
Reward if it helpful.
Regards,
Chandra

Customer Returns for Excisable Finished materials RG1 registers update

Dear Experts,
Ours is an Excisable Plant.
The Normal Sales to Invoice process runs fine.
When it comes to Customer Returns, kindly help me in understanding the process in receiving the Excise material.
Right now, i'm doing the following,
1. Create Return Sales Order w.r.t Orginal Sales Order (VA01)
2. Create Return Del w.r.t Return SOrd. (651 Mvt Type, returns stock)
3. Create Invoice w.r.t Delivery (VF01)
In the Excise Invoice area, i would like to know the following
1) Which transaction should i execute and what are the sequence of steps in that transaction.
Though i tried different transactions like J1IEX & J1IH, both the transactions are updating RG23A registers. Is it correct.
2) Our Business Process Owners say that when we receive the Finished Materials back again from the customer as a return,it should update the RG1 register. Is that a valid statement. If not , is there any official document/ link we can refer to ?
Kindly reply.
fyi. the returns qty is a partial quantity due to some defect.
Ex:if the main sale qty is 100 , the return qty may be just 10. (just to confirm that we cannot go through the cancellation of main process)
Thanks in advance.

a) On point no.1, you should always create a return sale order with reference to billing document only and not original sale order which is totally wrong
b) Right
c) Right. You may also generate credit memo with reference to return order
For updation of excise related sales returns, run T.Code J1IH and do the following:-
Customer Credit
Choose the Additional excise input the original excise invoice reference, document year, company code, plant and excise group and execute. There input manually what value you need to give credit and save.
Cenvat Debit
Choose Other Adjustment and here also, maintain the datas whatever you input as above and save.
RG1 register will get updated only for outgoing materials and only RG23A and RG23C will get updated for incoming materials.
thanks
G. Lakshmipathi

Export RG1 Register Updation

Dear Expert,
i want to update RG1 Register for Export process.
when i want to update? whether after ARE1 Creation or Before ARE1 Creation.
Thanks for advance

HI
You can Extract,Update and print the PG1 register after creating the Excise Invoice even domestic or Exports.
There is no hard and fast rule with regards to updation of registers with ARE1 or ARE3.
Use the Classification type IWE as classification type
regards
Prashanth

J1I5 -RG1 register updation in production UoM whil havin differ. Base UoM?

Dear gurus,
I have come across a situation where chapter ID assigned to material has UoM as MTS (metric ton)..while base unit of measurement in Material master is MTR(meter)... while updating RG1 register using J1I5 system is picking quantity in MTR though production unit is declared as MTS and conversion between MTR and MTS is fed already. It is desirable to have entry in UoM given in chapter ID not in base UoM. Kindly tell me a way using which UoM in J1I5 can be selected or changed.
well i am aware of that it is always preferable to have it Base unit of measure but there are other constraints of sales and PP etc which have compelled us to go with present situation ... please tell me if there is a way to make it work.... since raw mat. is bought in MTS and different goods have different conversion in MTR ... to do proper costing MTS is needed and for sales point of view MTR is important
regards
Avinash Goswami

not answered closed

RG1 Balance Updation

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