Setting Up DNS - Making Sure I'm Not Running Split Horizon

Hello everyone - I'm wanting to make sure I am running my DNS correctly and that it isn't split horizon.
I purchased a domain name (johnsonsfromtyler.com). I have public "@" and "mail" A host names pointing to my public IP address, have a MX for johnsonsfromtyler.com pointing to mail.johnsonsfromtyler.com, and have a reverse lookup setup all via public DNS.
On my SLS running the private DNS I have the primary zone name set as johnsonsfromtyler.com. For the nameserver I have the zone johnsonsfromtyler.com. pointing to server.johnsonsfromtyler.com which has a static IP of 10.0.1.10. I also have a mail exchanger hostname of mail.johnsonsfromtyler.com with a priority of 10. I also have an alias for mail.johnsonsfromtyler.com pointed to server.johnsonsfromtyler.com. I also have forwarder IP addresses pointing to the OpenDNS servers.
I have my router setup to use the private DNS server located at 10.0.1.10 and the search domain as johnsonsfromtyler.com. server.johnsonsfromtyler.com is running DNS and all other server services.
So am I running DNS correctly and is this setup a split horizon setup? Also, do I need to have forwarder IP addresses pointing to external DNS servers?

As Mr Hoffman writes if your "reuse" a public IP domain name in an internal private IP only LAN DNS your are using a "split horizon" DNS (where did that "designation" come from?).
To reach pubic IP servers using the same domain name from your LAN using only the internal DNS, you need to put also the pubic IP servers in your internal DNS with their public IPs. The reverse zone for any "remote" public IPs that Server Admin creates should be removed to let the DNS responsible for that zone answer those lookups - probably not too important for most configurations though.
BIND views can be used to give answers to lookups depending on where (what IP) the query comes from. The same DNS could be setup with different views where public and private IPs are in separate views so that private name -> IP lookups only gets answered when the query comes from the private IP LAN. If you can have a different response (IP) for the same name -> IP lookup? - probably(?) - if the private IP view is listed before the public one in the DNS config.
And I think a DNS is always caching lookups (?) not depending on if forwarders is used or not. Forwarders can speed up lookups but can also make trouble if they stop working/starting refusing answering recursive lookup queries. Without forwarders the DNS has to go "the long way" via root DNS servers (you should update /var/named/named.ca regularly especially if not using forwarders).

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Hello.
I have two Xserves (a G5 and a new Intel), both with fresh installs of 10.5 Server on them.
Xserve #1 not going to be hosting any external services (FTP, web, email) and only housing internal, mission critical & confidential data (the server is set up with a mirror RAID on the OS drive as well as mirror RAID on the storage drives + nightly tape backups for offsite storage). Right now there are no plans for enabling iCal on this server as we're trying to keep the server as basic as possible (as we can afford zero downtime on this server), but if the initial setup of 10.5 requires configuration at first run to allow this type of thing, I'd like to deal with it now so as to keep my options open (as I know iCal on 10.5 requires Open Directory enabled).
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There's a couple of things in your post I don't understand:
the server is set up with a mirror RAID on the OS drive as well as mirror RAID on the storage drives
How are you doing this? Both XServes support only three internal drives and two mirrors require 4 drives. Where does the fourth drive come into play?
I'm curious as to how I set up DNS in this situation
There are numerous ways of doing this, but with a single static IP address your best bet is to leave DNS where it is - managed by your hosting provider. Just add a record in the domain zone (e.g. ftp.yourdomain.com) that has the IP address of the public interface your SonicWall firewall. You don't need a separate domain for this. You also don't need to setup internal DNS for this (although you may need internal DNS if you're running Open Directory.
Because Xserve #2 is going to be hosting FTP, would it make sense to setup DNS on this server and not set it up on Xserve #1?
Assuming you're referring to setting up a DNS server - use them BOTH. Make one of the servers the primary server (I'd pick the internal-only server for this) and set the other server to be a slave (so it copies all the zone data from the primary server). That way you have a replica of the data to provide additional resilience.

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[foo release];
// STUFF with foo
[foo retain];
As long as I'm not re-assigning foo, at the end of this I'll still have the same foo, right? I'm not risking losing foo during the //STUFF am I?
I guess I'm making sure that my understanding of release is correct. If I release foo, it doesn't actually go away until all handles on it are gone. In other words, foo would have to be assigned to some other object in the //STUFF, or foo would have to go out of scope in the //STUFF (and presumably have a new foo created) in order for the actual original foo object to be deleted, right?
Ok, edit for motivation, because that's kind of a dumb thing to want to do, right?
The reason I want to do this is that lets say I have the following switch statement:
switch (test)
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[foo initb];
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A [foo autorelease] and then the retain might just do the trick.
Message was edited by: Brian Postow

Brian Postow wrote:
Let's say I do the following (foo starts out as some object):
[foo release];
// STUFF with foo
[foo retain];
As long as I'm not re-assigning foo, at the end of this I'll still have the same foo, right? I'm not risking losing foo during the //STUFF am I?
There is no way to tell. If the retain count of foo was one just before the release, then all bets are off.
I guess I'm making sure that my understanding of release is correct. If I release foo, it doesn't actually go away until all handles on it are gone.
I'm not sure I understand your understanding. I wouldn't use a term like "handle" since that has a specific meaning that is different than "retain count". If you replace "handle" with "retain count", then you are correct.
In other words, foo would have to be assigned to some other object in the //STUFF, or foo would have to go out of scope in the //STUFF (and presumably have a new foo created) in order for the actual original foo object to be deleted, right?
I'm not sure what you are saying. Objective-C is not C++. A variable going out of scope means nothing in Objective-C. It isn't that complex. It keeps track of the number of times "retain" is called on the object (including the original, implicit "retain"). When the number of releases matches the number of retains, then the object is deallocated.
Ok, edit for motivation, because that's kind of a dumb thing to want to do, right?
The reason I want to do this is that lets say I have the following switch statement:
switch (test)
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[foo inita];
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[foo setupc];
break;
case 4:
f = [D alloc];
[foo initd];
break;
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<jsp:useBean id="MedicalBean" class="Project5.MedicalReimbursementRecord" scope="session"/>
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