Call Applet method from C++. Possible ?

Hi,
For all the guru's of JNI and applets...
I have a (C++) ATL object and an applet in an HTML page in IE 6.0
Is it possible to invoke a public method of the applet from the ATL object ? ( without involving any Javascript / liveconnect )?
If so how?
Basically I'm searching for a workaround to a bug
http://developer.java.sun.com/developer/bugParade/bugs/4838960.html
As per the bug evaluation it is caused due to "Pumping messages while
JavaScript->Java call is being executed"
Thus I want to somehow send the info directly to java and bypass the Javascript->Java call.
desparate.....
TIA
mqs

Hi,
For all the guru's of JNI and applets...
I have a (C++) ATL object and an applet in an HTML
page in IE 6.0
Is it possible to invoke a public method of the applet
from the ATL object ? ( without involving any
Javascript / liveconnect )?
If so how?Yes it is. You create the JVM (a method of the jni)
,and then you run the method of the applet on the jvm.
For the details
there is a book about the Java Native interface free
of charge in the sun's website.
>
Basically I'm searching for a workaround to a bug
http://developer.java.sun.com/developer/bugParade/bugs/
838960.html
As per the bug evaluation it is caused due to
"Pumping messages while
JavaScript->Java call is being executed"
Thus I want to somehow send the info directly to java
and bypass the Javascript->Java call.
desparate.....
TIA
mqs

Similar Messages

  • Call applet methods from Javascript

    Hello,
    If I call applet method like :
    function callbackFunc(){
        var pp = appletID.getData();
        alert(pp);
    It works only if applet is deployed with <APPLET> tag or with javascript.
    If applet is deployed using <Object> and <embed> tags, in browser console the error is :
    TypeError: appletID.getData is not a function
    I couldn't find why is that behaviour. What do I do wrong?
    Thanks

    Hi Paul,
    (1)Seems to be your Java Runtime Environment path is still setted for JRE 1.3.0_01 and not for 1.3.1. So pelase go to the
    Control Panel-->java plugin 1.3.1-->Advanced. Here you set the Java Runtime Environment to the JRE 1.3.1 version. Its better to remove the older version before installing the new version on JRE.
    (2)<OBJECT> tag won't work for Netscape. You can only use <APPLET> or <EMBED> tag for Netscape.
    Hope this will help you.
    Anil
    Developer Technical Support
    Sun Microsystems
    http://www.sun.com/developers/support

  • Call Applet method from JavaScript, tiny test program works... SOMETIMES!?

    I have an embedded Applet in a web page, and I am trying to directly call a method in that Applet from the same page, using JavaScript.
    Here is the complete Applet:
    import java.applet.Applet;
    public class Test extends Applet {
      public String test() {
        return "test() method return value";
    }Here is the complete web page:
    <HTML>
    <HEAD><TITLE>Applet Invocation test</TITLE></HEAD>
    <BODY>
    <APPLET CODE="Test" WIDTH=10 HEIGHT=10 NAME="test"></APPLET>
    <HR>
    <SCRIPT>
    document.write( "JavaScript is working<br>" );
    document.write( document.test.test() );
    </SCRIPT>
    </BODY>
    </HTML>Is there anything wrong with this? Because it works about 15% of the time, displaying an <HR>, "JavaScript is working", and then "test() method return value" on the next line.
    The other 85% of the time, it just gets to "JavaScript is working", then I get a JavaScript error "Object does not support this property or method" for the line: document.write( document.test.test() );
    Now here's another weird quirk... I can get it to work ALL the time, if I delay the execution of the Applet method. For example, if the first line after <SCRIPT> is alert( "alert" ); then the user gets a little dialog box with "alert" message in it, and when they hit OK execution continues, and the applet method call ALWAYS works. (On a side note, if I make the Applet test() method static, it NEVER works. Why is this?)
    So it seems to me, that when it is failing, it is because the Applet is not completely loaded into the browser yet. My question is, how can I get around this?? Is there a way to instruct JavaScript to wait until the Applet is finished loading before attempting to call any methods on it?
    PS I am using Windows ME and IE 6

    Thanks for the reply, I appreciate it. I have another question, if you don't mind... here is what my new test web page looks like:
    <HTML>
    <HEAD>
    <TITLE>Applet Invocation test</TITLE>
    <SCRIPT>
    function testFunc()
      document.write( document.test.test() );
    </SCRIPT>
    </HEAD>
    <BODY onLoad="testFunc()">
    <APPLET CODE="Test" WIDTH=10 HEIGHT=10 NAME="test">
    </APPLET>
    <HR>
    </BODY>
    </HTML>What happens is: the page loads, I see a 10x10 grey applet box, and a <HR>... then a split second later, onLoad is fired, and everything on the page so far is REPLACED with the output of testFunc(), so the ONLY thing on the page after this all completes is "test() method return value"
    Why is a single document.write() statement CLEARING the page before outputting? I don't understand. If calling a document.write() from an onLoad event wipes out everything on the page, this is not extremely helpful solution.

  • Call to Applet Method from JavaScript Failed.

    I Am calling a method from a javascript function from within a web page.
    The page is loaded into a frame. The parent window of the frame has stored a reference to the applet which defines the methods. Note I am treating the reterence to the applet as a global variable. So that I can reference it methods as I navigate from one page to another.
    I have JavaScript objects defined, and I am passing them as parameters to the applet's methods. In java, the JavaScript objects are refererenced as JSObject. When I call a java method passing a JavaScript
    Object I get the following exception. Note Iam using j2sdk1.4.2_01 on a Windows 2000 Professional System. This problem start occurring after the recent Microsoft Worm/Virus a fix was loaded on my system which resulted in the following bug. Could someone please help me.
    java.lang.NullPointerException
         at sun.plugin.javascript.ocx.JSObject.setIExplorerAppletContext(Unknown Source)
         at sun.plugin.com.DispatchImpl.convertParams(Unknown Source)
         at sun.plugin.com.DispatchImpl.invokeImpl(Unknown Source)
         at sun.plugin.com.DispatchImpl$2.run(Unknown Source)
         at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method)
         at sun.plugin.com.DispatchImpl.invoke(Unknown Source)
    java.lang.Exception: java.lang.NullPointerException
         at sun.plugin.com.DispatchImpl.invokeImpl(Unknown Source)
         at sun.plugin.com.DispatchImpl$2.run(Unknown Source)
         at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method)
         at sun.plugin.com.DispatchImpl.invoke(Unknown Source)

    A little code snippet would help. I use JSObjects from Java 1.4 no problem and do have all the latest updates. I also have JavaScript calling Java code as well - also with no problem.

  • Calling a method from another file

    This is pretty basic stuff but i can't seem to get it right. I am calling a method from another file. The other file IS located in the same folder BUT when i compile i get errors
    "cannot find symbol" <===referring to limit and sieve i believe.
    The method name is "sieve" the file name is "PrimeSieve2008" and "limit" is the variable in brackets in the real method.
         public static void main (String [] args) {
    final int [] PRIMES;
    int sieve = PrimeSieve2008.sieve(limit);
         PRIMES = sieve(getValidInt());
              for (int j = 0; j<PRIMES.length; j++) {
                   System.out.println("Prime[" + j + "] = " + PRIMES[j]);
    Is "int sieve = PrimeSieve2008.sieve(limit)" the wrong way to call a file?
    Thanks a million,
    Alex
    Edited by: Simplistic2099 on Apr 3, 2008 7:47 PM
    Edited by: Simplistic2099 on Apr 3, 2008 7:49 PM

    Simplistic2099 wrote:
    the other method runs fine:
    "public static int[] sieve(final int limit){
    int candidate; // possible prime
    int count; // no. of primes found
    boolean[] mayBePrime = new boolean[limit+1];
    // remaining possibilities
    final int[] PRIMES; // array to return
    // initialize mayBePrime
    for ( int j = 0 ; j <= limit ; j++ ) {
    mayBePrime[j] = true;
    mayBePrime[0] = mayBePrime[1] = false;
    // apply sieve, and count primes
    candidate = 2;
    count = 0;
    while ( candidate <= limit ) {
    if ( mayBePrime[candidate] ) {
    count++;
    for ( int j = 2 * candidate ; j <= limit ; j += candidate ) {
    mayBePrime[j] = false;
    } // end for
    } // end if
    candidate++;
    } // end while
    // fill up new array with the primes found
    PRIMES = new int[count];
    count = 0;
    for (int j = 2 ; j <= limit ; j++ ) {
    if ( mayBePrime[j] ) {
    PRIMES[count] = j;
    count++;
    } // end if
    } // for
    return PRIMES;
    } // sieve
    I really am clueless here.in this one you are passing in limit.
    in the other one you are getting limit from somewhere outside of main.

  • EJB 3.1 @Asynchronous and calling other methods from within

    Hey all,
    I am helping a friend set up a test framework, and I've turned him on to using JEE6 for the task. I am decently familiar with entity beans, session beans, and such. One of the new features is @Asynchronous, allowing a method to be ran on a separate thread. The test framework generally needs to spawn potentially 1000's of threads to simulate multiple users at once. Originally I was doing this using the Executor classes, but I've since learned that for some reason, spawning your own threads within a JEE container is "not allowed" or bad to do. I honestly don't quite know why this is.. from what I've read the main concern is that the container maintains threads and your own threads could mess up the container somehow. I can only guess that this might be possible if your threads use the container services in some way.. but if anyone could enlighten me on the details as to why this is bad, that would be great.
    None the less, EJB 3.1 adds the async capability and I am now looking to use this. From my servlet I use @EJB to access the session bean, and call an async method. My servlet returns right away as it should. From the async method I do some work and using an entity bean store results, so I don't need to return a Future object. In fact, my ejb then makes an HttpClient call to another servlet to notify it that the result is ready.
    My main question though, is if it's ok to call other methods from the async method that are not declared @Asynchronous. I presume it is ok, as the @Asynchronous just enables the container to spawn a thread to execute that method in. But I can't dig up any limitations on the code within an async method.. whether or not it has restrictions on the container services, is there anything wrong with using HttpClient to make a request from the method.. and making calls to helper methods within the bean that are not async.
    Thanks.

    851827 wrote:
    Hey all,.. from what I've read the main concern is that the container maintains threads and your own threads could mess up the container somehow. I can only guess that this might be possible if your threads use the container services in some way.. but if anyone could enlighten me on the details as to why this is bad, that would be great.
    Yes since the EE spec delegated thread management to conatiners, the container might assume that some info is available in the thread context that you may not have made available to your threads.
    Also threading is a technical implementation detail and the drive with the EE spec is that you should concentrate on business requirements and let the container do the plumbing part.
    If you were managing your own threads spawned from EJBs, you'd have to be managing your EJBs' lifecycle as well. This would just add to more plumbing code by the developer and typically requires writting platform specific routines which the containers already do anyway.
    >
    None the less, EJB 3.1 adds the async capability and I am now looking to use this. From my servlet I use @EJB to access the session bean, and call an async method. My servlet returns right away as it should. From the async method I do some work and using an entity bean store results, so I don't need to return a Future object. In fact, my ejb then makes an HttpClient call to another servlet to notify it that the result is ready.
    My main question though, is if it's ok to call other methods from the async method that are not declared @Asynchronous. I presume it is ok, as the @Asynchronous just enables the container to spawn a thread to execute that method in. But I can't dig up any limitations on the code within an async method.. whether or not it has restrictions on the container services, is there anything wrong with using HttpClient to make a request from the method.. and making calls to helper methods within the bean that are not async.
    Thanks.If you want to be asynchronous without caring about a return value then just use MDBs.
    The async methods have no restrictions on container services and there is nothing wrong with calling other non async methods. Once the async method is reached those annotations don't matter anyway (unless if you call thhose methods from a new reference of the EJB that you look up) as they only make sense in a client context.
    Why do you need to make the call to the servlet from the EJB? Makes it difficult to know who is the client here. Better use the Future objects and let the initial caller delegate to the other client components as needed.

  • Call C# method from javascript in WebView and retrieve the return value

    The issue I am facing is the following :
    I want to call a C# method from the javascript in my WebView and get the result of this call in my javascript.
    In an WPF Desktop application, it would not be an issue because a WebBrowser
    (the equivalent of a webView) has a property ObjectForScripting to which we can assign a C# object containg the methods we want to call from the javascript.
    In an Windows Store Application, it is slightly different because the WebView
    only contains an event ScriptNotify to which we can subscribe like in the example below :
    void MainPage_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e)
    this.webView.ScriptNotify += webView_ScriptNotify;
    When the event ScriptNotify is raised by calling window.external.notify(parameter), the method webView_ScriptNotify is called with the parameter sent by the javascript :
    function CallCSharp() {
    var returnValue;
    window.external.notify(parameter);
    return returnValue;
    private async void webView_ScriptNotify(object sender, NotifyEventArgs e)
    var parameter = e.Value;
    var result = DoSomerthing(parameter);
    The issue is that the javascript only raise the event and doesn't wait for a return value or even for the end of the execution of webView_ScriptNotify().
    A solution to this issue would be call a javascript function from the webView_ScriptNotify() to store the return value in a variable in the javascript and retrieve it after.
    private async void webView_ScriptNotify(object sender, NotifyEventArgs e)
    var parameter = e.Value;
    var result = ReturnResult();
    await this.webView.InvokeScriptAsync("CSharpCallResult", new string[] { result });
    var result;
    function CallCSharp() {
    window.external.notify(parameter);
    return result;
    function CSharpCallResult(parameter){
    result = parameter;
    However this does not work correctly because the call to the CSharpResult function from the C# happens after the javascript has finished to execute the CallCSharp function. Indeed the
    window.external.notify does not wait for the C# to finish to execute.
    Do you have any solution to solve this issue ? It is quite strange that in a Window Store App it is not possible to get the return value of a call to a C# method from the javascript whereas it is not an issue in a WPF application.

    I am not very familiar with the completion pattern and I could not find many things about it on Google, what is the principle? Unfortunately your solution of splitting my JS function does not work in my case. In my example my  CallCSharp
    function is called by another function which provides the parameter and needs the return value to directly use it. This function which called
    CallCSharp will always execute before an InvokeScriptAsync call a second function. Furthermore, the content of my WebView is used in a cross platforms context so actually my
    CallCSharp function more look like the code below.
    function CallCSharp() {
    if (isAndroid()) {
    //mechanism to call C# method from js in Android
    //return the result of call to C# method
    } else if (isWindowsStoreApp()) {
    window.external.notify(parameter);
    // should return the result of call to C# method
    } else {
    In android, the mechanism in the webView allows to return the value of the call to a C# method, in a WPF application also. But I can't figure why for a Windows Store App we don't have this possibility.

  • Problem calling applet method using IE

    I've searched through the forum and can't seem to find anything that can help me fix this. I'm trying to call an applet's method using Javascript. This is working fine under Netscape, but not IE. Everything I've read seems to indicate that I'm doing this right, but I'm getting "Object doesn't support this property or method" when I try to call the applet method from IE.
    In this example method, I'm trying to call the applet's countChars method, which should return the length of the string you pass into it. Works under Netscape 6.2, but not IE 6.0
    Here's my applet code:
    import java.lang.String;
    public class test extends java.applet.Applet {
    public static int countChars(String s) {
    return s.length();
    And my HTML
    <HTML>
    <HEAD>
    <script language="Javascript">
    function refreshApplet()
    /*     i = document.forms.myForm.TestApplet.countChars();
         document.forms.myForm.output.value=i; */
         document.forms.myForm.output.value=document.applets["TestApplet"].countChars(document.forms.myForm.input.value);
    </script>
    </HEAD>
    <BODY>
    <APPLET CODE = "test.class" WIDTH = 400 HEIGHT = 400 ALIGN = middle NAME = "TestApplet" scriptable="true">
    </APPLET>
    <br>
    <form name="myForm">
    <input type="text" name="input">
    <input type="button" value="click me" onClick="refreshApplet();">
    <hr>
    <input type="text" name="output">
    </form>
    </BODY>
    </HTML>
    Thanks in advance!
    Craig Drabik
    Sr. Programmer/Analyst
    University at Buffalo

    I have very similar problem, my applet works OK using Netscape (6.2 and 7.0), but with IE 6.0 It only works with windows XP;
    The reported error is "Object doesn't support this property or method"
    Can someone please help me to solve this problem.
    Cheers
    Horus
    This is my code:
    - I call the applet using javaScript and input the method setData with two strings.
    function graphic()
         var dataZenith;
         var dataManual;
         initVariables();
         dataZenith = graphicZENith(); //Call other Javascript functions
         dataManual = graphicManual(); //Call other Javascript functions
         document.AppletOne.setData(dataZenith,dataManual);
    I run the applet with this HTML code:
    <applet NAME="AppletOne" code="Appl.class" width="450" height="450"
    MAYSCRIPT></applet>
    //Applet code/////////////
    import java.awt.*;
    import java.awt.geom.*;
    import java.applet.*;
    import java.util.*;
    public class Appl extends Applet {
         private int [] myArray1 = new int [156];     
         private int [] myArray2 = new int [156];
         private boolean flag = false;
         // maxDataYAxesNumber es usado para dividir el eje de las Y
    public void init()
              setFont(new Font("SansSerif", Font.BOLD, 12));
              setBackground (Color.white);
              setSize(getSize());     
    // Get data and put in an array
    public void setData(String data1, String data2)
              final String DELIMITER = ",";
              final StringTokenizer theTokens1 =
                   new StringTokenizer(data1, DELIMITER);     
              final StringTokenizer theTokens2 =
                   new StringTokenizer(data2, DELIMITER);
              try
                        String dataX = data1;
                        for (int i = 0; i < 156; i++)
                        myArray1[i] = Integer.parseInt(theTokens1.nextToken().trim());
                        myArray2[i] = Integer.parseInt(theTokens2.nextToken().trim());
              catch (NumberFormatException e) {};
              flag = true; //I get the data OK
              repaint();
    public void paint (Graphics g){
    Graphics2D g2d = (Graphics2D)g;
    setData(data1, data2) ;
    if (flag == true)
                   //Call other functions to process the graphic
    else g2d.drawString(" Sorry I can get Data", 100,80);          

  • How to Call C++ Method from Java

    I need to call C++ method from Java.
    I have gone through the JNI tuorial , but was not able to pin point things.
    I read that :
    You have to write JNI c functions which then call your C++ member functions.You need to write a JNI function which will call new on your C++ class.
    Now i have java class :
    Java Code JavaClass.java ---->
    class JavaClass{
    public native void nativeMethod();
        static
            System.loadLibrary("NativeCppCode");
         private void callCppMethod()
              //call C++ method
                    JavaClass jvc = new JavaClass();
                    jvc.nativeMethod()
    }Cpp Code:
    NativeCppCode.h---->
    class NativeCppCode
    public:
        getValue();
        setValue();
    private:
       int a;
    JNIEXPORT void JNICALL Java_JavaClass_nativeMethod(JNIEnv *env
                   ,jobject obj);NativeCppCode.C---->
    NativeCppCode::getValue()
       return a;
    NativeCppCode::setValue()
       a = 1;
    JNIEXPORT void JNICALL Java_JavaClass_nativeMethod(JNIEnv *env
                   ,jobject obj)
    NativeCppCode* nativeInstabce = new NativeCppCode();
    NativeCppCode.setValue();
    }Is this the correct way to do it.
    Any suggestion would be a great help to me

    tryit wrote:
    I need to call C++ method from Java.Not possible.
    JNI uses C methods.
    Is this the correct way to do it.Same way you would do it in any C/C++ method (not java)
           MyClass* p = ....
           p->doit();
    Common idiom for the pointer in the above is to pass it back and forth to your java code as a java long. You cast it it and from your class pointer. Provide an explicit java method to free it when done. Besides providing the explicit method also implement a finalizer to free it as well (however that is a fail safe and should not be relied upon.)

  • How do you call a method from  another class without extending as a parent?

    How do you call a method from another class without extending it as a parent? Is this possible?

    Why don't you just create an instance of the class?
    Car c = new Car();
    c.drive("fast");The drive method is in the car class, but as long as the method is public, you can use it anywhere.
    Is that what you were asking or am I totally misunderstanding your question?
    Jen

  • Call java method from pl/sql

    Hello,
    i have library written in java and i need call one method from this lib in pl/sql. it's returning string. Is it possible? If, yes can you direct me to some docs about this topic? We have oracle version 8 and 10.
    Thanks a lot.

    i think java support was added to oracle from 8i. is you package is in the form of jar file or java code.?
    you can you jdeveloper the best one i found for writing java and sqlj stored procedures
    you can use loadjava here is a cut and paste from a example i have on my system
    REM Server-side translation, execution of SQLJ program
    REM
    REM Environment setup:
    REM - have sqlj and javac in your PATH
    REM - SQLJ libaries in your CLASSPATH
    REM
    REM In the directory having the SQLJ demo for the server,
    REM execute the following commands
    REM Drop any previously-loaded demo classes
    sqlplus scott/tiger @Dropl
    REM Load the SQLJ source directly
    call loadjava -oci8 -resolve -force -user scott/tiger ServerDemo.sqlj
    REM Publish SQL wrapper and run the demo on the server using SQL*Plus
    sqlplus scott/tiger @Run.sql
    REM In sqlplus, it should print
    REM Hello! I'm SQLJ in server!
    REM Today is <date>

  • Calling OCX Methods from a Java Program

    Hi All,
    Is it possible to call OCX methods from a Java program? If yes, can you please refer me to any documents or sample code to achieve this.
    All inputs are highly appreciated.
    Thanks
    Tarek

    JNI
    http://java.sun.com/docs/books/tutorial/native1.1/index.html

  • Operation not found error while calling AM methods from managed bean

    Hi,
    operation not found error while calling AM methods from managed bean.
    written a method with two parameters in AM.
    exposed the method in AM client interface
    in the page bindings added the method in method action ..left empty in the value fields of the parameters.
    calling the method from managed bean like below
    String userNameVal = (String)userName.getValue();
    String passwordVal = (String)password.getValue();
    OperationBinding operationBinding =
    ADFUtils.findOperation("verifyLogin");
    operationBinding.getParamsMap().put("userName",userNameVal);
    operationBinding.getParamsMap().put("password",passwordVal);
    operationBinding.execute();
    i am getting operation verifyLogin not found error.Please suggest me something to do.
    Thanks
    Satya

    Hi vlsn,
    Can you try with the below code
    // in your backing bean
    OperationBinding operation = bindings.getOperationBinding("verifyLogin");
    //Put your both parameters here
    operation.getParamsMap().put("parameter_name1", parameterValue1);
    operation.getParamsMap().put("parameter_name2", parameterValue2);
    operation.execute();
    if (operation.getResult() != null) {
    Boolean result = (Boolean) operation.getResult();
    and share the result.
    regards,
    Rajan

  • Calling a method from a super class

    Hello, I'm trying to write a program that will call a method from a super class. This program is the test program, so should i include extends in the class declaration? Also, what code is needed for the call? Just to make things clear the program includes three different types of object classes and one abstract superclass and the test program which is what im having problems with. I try to use the test program to calculate somthing for each of them using the abstract method in the superclass, but its overridden for each of the three object classes. Now to call this function what syntax should I include? the function returns a double. Thanks.

    Well, this sort of depends on how the methods are overridden.
    public class SuperFoo {
      public void foo() {
         //do something;
      public void bar(){
         //do something
    public class SubFoo extends SuperFoo {
       public void foo() {
          //do something different that overrides foo()
       public void baz() {
          bar(); //calls superclass method
          foo(); //calls method in this (sub) class
          super.foo(); //calls method in superclass
    }However, if you have a superclass with an abstract method, then all the subclasses implement that same method with a relevant implementation. Since the parent method is abstract, you can't make a call to it (it contains no implementation, right?).

  • Need help calling a method from an immutable class

    I'm having difficulties in calling a method from my class called Cabin to my main. Here's the code in my main              if(this is where i want my method hasKitchen() from my Cabin class)
                        System.out.println("There is a kitchen.");
                   else
                        System.out.println("There is not a kitchen.");
                   }and here's my method from my Cabin class:public boolean hasKitchen()
         return kitchen;
    }

    You should first have an instance of Cabin created by using
       Cabin c = ....
       if (c.hasKitchen()) {
         System.out.println("There is a kitchen.");
       } else {
            System.out.println("There is not a kitchen.");
       }

Maybe you are looking for

  • Shared photo's & music...

    Guys/Gals My wife and I share a MacBook Pro with a 120Gig harddrive. We use seperate logins so we have our own internet shortcuts, email accounts, etc. However, because of that setup, we also have duplicate photo and music file folders. If we could s

  • Configuration Simulation Error

    Has anyone encountered the error below while simulation, It is not throwing 403 error. HTTP connection to ABAP Runtime failed. Error: Unexpected end of file from server URL: http://<hostname>:8000/sap/xi/simulation?sap-client=800 User: PIDIRUSER

  • Ways to decrease the cost of license

    Hi to all. I'm just wondering if we can do something on how to reduce the license cost if we do have hospital or school clients. I have no problem with regards the capability of SAP B1 in the needs of hospitals or schools. But in those industries (wi

  • Need help with Video Categories Movies, Music Videos, ETC.

    Is there anyway to put ripped videos into other categories besides just Movies? I would like to put some of them under Music Videos, is that possible?

  • Capacity requirement and scheduling process

    Hi Experts,   please explain me how capacity requirement and scheduling (please explain with configuration  settings)    will help in SAP PP. Regards, Bhaskar. Edited by: basi123 on Nov 7, 2011 1:12 PM