Update temp table with alias
I have query like this:
SELECT o1.q_sum, c.q_sum FROM CTE1 c INNER JOIN #order o1 ON o1.col1=c1.col1
It works. I get c.q_sum different from null for every row, while o1.q_sum is null.
But if I write like this:
UPDATE o1 SET o1.q_sum=c.q_sum FROM CTE1 c INNER JOIN #order o1 ON o1.col1=c1.col1
id doesn't work. The all columns q_sum from temp table are still null. How is that possible?
Do not need alias for columns
create table #t (c int)
insert into #t values (1)
update o set c =2 from #t o ---works just fine
create table #t1 (c int)
insert into #t1 values (2)
update o set c =#t1.c from #t o join #t1 on o.c=#t1.c ---works just fine
Best Regards,Uri Dimant SQL Server MVP,
http://sqlblog.com/blogs/uri_dimant/
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This method works but is there an easier (faster) way to update another table with new data only?
>
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http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28286/statements_9016.htm
MERGE INTO bonuses D
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DELETE WHERE (S.salary > 8000)
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WHERE (S.salary <= 8000); -
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UPDATING A TABLE WITH SAME INFO FROM ANOTHER TABLE ON THE SAME DB
0down votefavorite
I am trying to update a table with info from another table on the same db with same table name. I just want the info to be the same , no primary key or constraint involve just a straight replacement of records and I keep getting errors WITH THE TABLE not
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FROM
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TechNet Community Support -
How to update two tables with trigger
Hi:
how to update two tables with trigger ?
I have two tables :
(1)ASIA
MI number;
(2)ASIA_P
ID number;
When I insert a new value into the asia.MI ,I also can
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create or replace trigger MI_TRG
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Recordset - updating 2 tables with 1 recordset using application object update record
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Example of where:
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I don’t have much php experience.jon-rookie wrote:
> DreamerJim,
>
> I am sorry but I don't think you are correct. I just
can't believe that with
> all the powers to be at Macromedia and now Adobe can't
figure out how to update
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that require this. I
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internet. It seems I
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question. Unfortunately
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what I myself and many
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unless you purchase a
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>
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sure that is accurate!
>
> Still, alot of php programmers do this all the time
without much trouble. I
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capability if a person knows
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>
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>
Not even CS3 has this built in, you will either have to code
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basic
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i have a table as follows:
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CREATE OR REPLACE procedure daz_html
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htp.p(' <FORM enctype="multipart/form-data" action="daz_fu" method="POST">');
htp.p(' <p>');
htp.p(' File to upload: <INPUT type="file" name="p_file_in"><br>');
htp.p(' <p><INPUT type="submit">');
htp.p(' </form>');
htp.p('</body>');
htp.p('</html>');
end;
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p_file_in varchar2
as
-- BLOB Stream locator
v_raw blob;
v_clob clob;
v_blob_length number;
v_length number;
v_buffer varchar2(32767);
v_pos number := 1;
begin
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into v_raw
from spg_file_import
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loop
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exit when v_pos >= v_blob_length;
end loop;
commit;
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end;
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Fri, 26 Jul 2002 11:49:24 GMT
ORA-03113: end-of-file on communication channel
DAD name: spgd1
PROCEDURE : daz_fu
USER : spg
URL : http://www.bracknell.bt.co.uk/pls/spgd1/daz_fu
PARAMETERS :
============
p_file_in:
F22210/Document.txt
this produces a large trc file.. the trace file indicates the crash occured on the commit; line
Current RBA:[0x4eb0.117.10]
*** 2002-07-26 12:35:11.857
ksedmp: internal or fatal error
ORA-00600: internal error code, arguments: [kcblibr_user_found], [4294967295], [2], [12583564], [65], [], [], []
Current SQL statement for this session:
declare
rc__ number;
begin
owa.init_cgi_env(:n__,:nm__,:v__);
htp.HTBUF_LEN := 255;
null;
daz_fu(p_ref_in=>:p_ref_in,p_type_in=>:p_type_in,p_file_in=>:p_file_in);
if (wpg_docload.is_file_download) then
rc__ := 1;
wpg_docload.get_download_file(:doc_info);
null;
commit;
else
rc__ := 0; null;
commit;
owa.get_page(:data__,:ndata__);
end if;
:rc__ := rc__;
end;
----- PL/SQL Call Stack -----
object line object
handle number name
812b1998 42 procedure SPG.DAZ_FU
819dff90 7 anonymous block
----- Call Stack Trace -----
If i reaplce the temporary table with a non-temp table of the same structure i get no problems what-so-ever. Am I doing something that I shouldnt be with global temporary tables?
Thanks.This is on Oracle 8.1.7.2
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Progammatic update a table with a database view in the page
Hi All,
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Here is my scenario. I have an ADF form which is based on the database view Products and is dragged and dropped from Data Controls->ProductVO. When an existing record is submitted, a backing bean method will be called to update the data against the table Products_Base (and the table Product_Transactions at the same time) programmatically. An update method updateProductPrice() is added into the Application Module and published it to UI Client. The submit button in the page is created by directly dragging and dropping Data Controls->updateProductPrice into the page. When I run it, I got the following error message,
Failed to post data to database during "Update": SQL Statement "UPDATE PRODUCTS ProductEO SET COST_PRICE=:1 WHERE PRODUCT_ID=:2".
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getDBTransaction().commit();
Here are my codes,
The method which got called in the backing bean
public String cb6_action() {
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FacesCtrlAttrsBinding ProductId = (FacesCtrlAttrsBinding)bc.get("ProductId");
FacesCtrlAttrsBinding CostPrice = (FacesCtrlAttrsBinding)bc.get("CostPrice");
JUCtrlActionBinding action =
(JUCtrlActionBinding)bc.findCtrlBinding("updateProductPrice");
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ApplicationModule am = (ApplicationModule)dc.getDataProvider();
AppModule service = (AppModule)am;
service.updateProductPrice(new Long(ProductId.toString()), CostPrice.toString());
return null;
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return BindingContext.getCurrent().getCurrentBindingsEntry();
The update method defined in the Application module (AppModuleImpl.java)
public void updateProductPrice(long productId, String costPrice) {
ProductsBaseEOImpl product = retrieveProductById(productId);
if (product != null) {
try {
product.setCostPrice(new Number(costPrice));
getDBTransaction().commit();
catch (JboException ex) {
getDBTransaction().rollback();
throw ex;
catch (SQLException ex1) {
getDBTransaction().rollback();
private ProductsBaseEOImpl retrieveProductById(long productId) {
EntityDefImpl productDef = ProductsBaseEOImpl.getDefinitionObject();
Key productKey = ProductsBaseEOImpl.createPrimaryKey(new DBSequence(productId));
return (ProductsBaseEOImpl)productDef.findByPrimaryKey(getDBTransaction(),productKey);
Edited by: john wang on Oct 27, 2009 7:14 AMor
merge into test
using (select rowid rid
, id
, sub_id
, startdate
, lead (startdate) over (order by id, sub_id) - 1 ed
from test) x
on (x.rid = test.rowid)
when matched then
update set end_date = x.ed
; -
HI All ,
I have table with records in DB which i need to modify from internal table via job.
if we start from scratch (fill the db table in the first time ) all the records should be valid
(column valid mark as abap_true)
in the next run if new data will come to the table the records should be valid automatically
and if some records are not occur in the second run the record in the table should be not valid
what is the best way to do that .
i give an example
in the first run i have users in the itab ( that update the db)
users roles valid_flag
user1 rol1 X
user1 rol2 X
user1 rol3 X
user2 rol1 X
user2 rol2 X
user2 rol3 X
This what i have in the internal table and what should be in the db table also .
in the next run i have in the itab
user1 rol1 X
user1 rol2 X
user1 rol4 X
user2 rol1 X
user2 rol5 X
user2 rol6 X
user3 rol1 X
user3 rol5 X
user3 rol3 X
so after the following run the table should look like .
users roles valid_flag
user1 rol1 X
user1 rol2 X
user1 rol3
user1 rol4 X
user2 rol1 X
user2 rol2
user2 rol3
user2 rol5 X
user2 rol6 X
user3 rol1 X
user3 rol5 X
user3 rol3 X
The old records are not deleted there are just mark as not valid and if we have new records
they are inserted to the table with valid flag .
What is the best way to do that .
Regards
ChrisHI Anmol
its not that simple ...
I have table with records in DB which i need to modify from internal table via job.
if we start from scratch (fill the DB table in the first time ) all the records should be valid
(column valid mark as abap_true)
in the next run if new data will come to the table (it_new_usrs_data) the new records should be valid automatically
and if some records are not occur (in it_new_usrs_data ) in the second run the record in the DB table should be not valid .
You can see the the example in my first post .
What i want to avoid the select single in loop because of performance the DB table can store more than 100000 records ...
Do you have diff idea ?
in the first run i have users in the itab ( that update the DB)
Assume that after the first run i this is the DB table that i read in the second run with the select to lt_copy_db
users roles valid_flag
user1 rol1 X
user1 rol2 X
user1 rol3 X
user2 rol1 X
user2 rol2 X
user2 rol3 X
In the next run of the job i have in the internal table it_new_usrs_data
user1 rol1 X
user1 rol2 X
user1 rol4 X
user2 rol1 X
user2 rol5 X
user2 rol6 X
user3 rol1 X
user3 rol5 X
user3 rol3 X
so after the following run the DB table should look like .
The o_ld records are not deleted_ there are just mark as not valid and if we have new records
they are inserted to the table with valid flag .
users roles valid_flag
user1 rol1 X
user1 rol2 X
user1 rol3
user1 rol4 X
user2 rol1 X
user2 rol2
user2 rol3
user2 rol5 X
user2 rol6 X
user3 rol1 X
user3 rol5 X
user3 rol3 X
Thanks
Chris
Edited by: Chris Teb on Jan 6, 2010 10:58 PM -
Updating a table with no Primary key
What I am trying to find out is if you can uniquely update a single record in a table that has no primary key. I see no way to reference the record I want, other than specifying all the field values in a where clause. This is a problem though, because if I have another record with the same field values, that will get updated too. (I know its a bad database design, but some people do it and I need to work around it!!!), there are some situations where you would have identical records as far as a where clause is concerned, for example, you cant use a blob in a where clause so that might be where your records differ...
In SQLServer 2000, Enterprise manager throws an error if you have a table with no primary key and duplicate records that you try to update through the GUI. EM uses stored procedures to execute updates, and it rolls back ones which result in more than one update result.
Im not too familiar with Cursors in SQL, only that they are quite slow and not implemented on all DB products. But I think that they might be able to solve the problem (but I dont logically see how).
Can anybody explain this to me?another record with the same field valuesIf you have two records and all the field values are the same then the records are logically the same anyways, so it shouldn't matter if you update both (one would question why there are two records in the first place.) In other words there is no way, either computationally or manually to tell them apart.
I suspect that that is rather rare. Instead what is more likely is that you are only using some of the fields. So just keep adding fields until it is unique.
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