Foreign key validation

hello
1)how to do foreign key validartiion in EO Impll?
2)i have one id value in EO impl, how can we call this from another eo?
Thanks
krish.

Hi,
1)how to do foreign key validartiion in EO Impll?
2)i have one id value in EO impl, how can we call this from another eo?---Here u need to create Association between 2 eo.
---Pls refer user guide .
Regards
Meher Ikr

Similar Messages

  • Foreign key validation while creating master/detail record in document mode

    I am creating master/detail records in the document mode. And I am generating the master primary key in the create() method of the master Entity Object. Now I valdate the foreign key in the detail Entity Object's validateEntity() method by doing a query to the master table through some View Object.
    But since the master record has not yet been posted (since it hasn't been committed) to the database, this query does not return any record and the validation fails in detail object.
    And thus the create fails.
    Please let me know if this is the right approach for doing this. If so where I am going wrong? Else please let me know if there are any better approach to do this.
    Kunal

    Kunal:
    Use a code snippet like the following:
    --- Assuming you're in the detail EO's create method ---
    oracle.jbo.server.EntityDefImpl eDef = oracle.jbo.server.EntityDefImpl.findDefObject(<package-qualified-name-of-the-master-Entity-Object>);
    oracle.jbo.Row masterRow = eDef.findByPrimaryKey(this.getDBTransaction(), <foreign-key>);
    If the row does not exist, masterRow will be null.
    findByPrimaryKey first checks the entity cache (which will include your new master row(s)) and then go out to database (if it's not in cache).
    Thanks.
    Sung

  • Unable to create foreign key: InvalidArgument=Value of '0' is not valid for 'index'. Parameter name: index

    I am running an SQL(CE) script to create a DB. All script commands succeed, but the DB get "broken" after creating the last costaint: after running the script, viewing table properties of Table2 and clicking on "Manage relations" gives the following error: Unable to create foreign key: InvalidArgument=Value of '0' is not valid for 'index'. Parameter name: index. Wondering what does that refer to...
    Here it is the script. Please note that no error is thrown by running the following queries (even from code that passing the queries by hand, one-by-one to sql server management studio).
    CREATE TABLE [table1] (
    [id_rubrica] numeric(18,0) NOT NULL
    , [id_campo] numeric(18,0) NOT NULL
    , [nome] nvarchar(100) NOT NULL
    GO
    ALTER TABLE [table1] ADD PRIMARY KEY ([id_rubrica],[id_campo]);
    GO
    CREATE UNIQUE INDEX [UQ__m_campi] ON [table1] ([id_campo] Asc);
    GO
    CREATE TABLE [table2] (
    [id_campo] numeric(18,0) NOT NULL
    , [valore] nvarchar(4000) NOT NULL
    GO
    ALTER TABLE [table2] ADD PRIMARY KEY ([id_campo],[valore]);
    GO
    ALTER TABLE [table2] ADD CONSTRAINT [campo_valoriFissi] FOREIGN KEY ([id_campo]) REFERENCES [table1]([id_campo]);
    GO
    Sid (MCP - http://www.sugata.eu)

    I know this is kind of old post, but did this realy solved your problem?
    I'm getting this same error message after adding a FK constraint via UI on VS2008 Server Explorer.
    I can add the constraint with no errors, but the constraint is not created on the DataSet wizard (strongly typed datasets on Win CE 6) and when I click "Manage Relations" on the "Table Properties" this error pop out:
    "InvalidArgument=Value or '0' is not valid for 'index'.
    Parameter name: index"
    Even after vreating my table with the relation in SQL the same occurs:
    CREATE TABLE pedidosRastreios (
        idPedidoRastreio INT NOT NULL IDENTITY PRIMARY KEY,
        idPedido INT NOT NULL CONSTRAINT FK_pedidosRastreios_pedidos REFERENCES pedidos(idPedido) ON DELETE CASCADE,
        codigo NVARCHAR(20) NOT NULL

  • How to avoid shared locks when validating foreign keys?

    I have a table with a FK and I want to update a row in that table without being blocked by another transaction which is updating the parent row at the same time. Here is an example:
    CREATE TABLE dbo.ParentTable
    PARENT_ID int NOT NULL,
    VALUE varchar(128) NULL,
    CONSTRAINT PK_ParentTable PRIMARY KEY (PARENT_ID)
    GO
    CREATE TABLE dbo.ChildTable
    CHILD_ID int NOT NULL,
    PARENT_ID INT NULL,
    VALUE varchar(128) NULL,
    CONSTRAINT PK_ChildTable PRIMARY KEY (CHILD_ID),
    CONSTRAINT FK_ChildTable__ParentTable FOREIGN KEY (PARENT_ID)
    REFERENCES dbo.ParentTable (PARENT_ID)
    GO
    INSERT INTO ParentTable(PARENT_ID, VALUE)
    VALUES (1, 'Some value');
    INSERT INTO ChildTable(CHILD_ID, PARENT_ID, VALUE)
    VALUES (1, 1, 'Some value');
    GO
    Now I have 2 transactions running at the same time:
    The first transaction:
    SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL READ UNCOMMITTED;BEGIN TRAN
    UPDATE ParentTable
    SET VALUE = 'Test'
    WHERE PARENT_ID = 1;
    The second transaction:
    SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL READ UNCOMMITTED;BEGIN TRAN
    UPDATE ChildTable
    SET VALUE = 'Test',
    PARENT_ID = 1
    WHERE CHILD_ID = 1;
    If 'UPDATE ParentTable' statement runs a bit earlier, then 'UPDATE ChildTable' statement is blocked untill the first transaction is committed or rollbacked. It happens because SQL Server acquires shared locks when validating foreign keys, even
    if the transaction is using read uncommitted, read committed snapshot (read committed using row versioning) or snapshot isolation level. I cannot see why change in the ParentTable.VALUE should prevent me from updating ChildTable. Please note that ParentTable.PARENT_ID
    is not changed by the first transaction, which means that from FK's point of view whatevere is set to the ParentTable.VALUE is never a problem for referential integrity. So, such blocking behavior seems to me not logical. Furthermore, it contradicts to the
    MSDN:
    Transactions running at the READ UNCOMMITTED level do not issue shared locks to prevent other transactions from modifying data read by the current transaction. READ UNCOMMITTED transactions are also not blocked by exclusive locks that would prevent the
    current transaction from reading rows that have been modified but not committed by other transactions. 
    Does anybody know how to workaround the issue? In other words, are there any tricks to avoid shared locks when validating foreign keys? (Disabling FK is not an option.) Thank you.
    Alexey

    If you change the primary key of the parent table to be nonclustered, there is no blocking.
    Indeed, when I update ParentTable.VALUE, then:
    in case of PK_ParentTable is clustered, a particular row in the clustered index is locked (request_mode:X, resource_type: KEY)
    in case of PK_ParentTable is non-clustered, a particular physical row in the heap is locked (request_mode:X, resource_type: RID).
    and when I update ChildTable.PARENT_ID, then:
    in case of PK_ParentTable is clustered, this index is used to verify referential integrity:
    in case of PK_ParentTable is non-clustered, again this index is used to verify referential integrity, but this time it is not locked:
    It is important to note that in both cases SQL Server acquires shared locks when validating foreign keys. The principal difference is that in case of clustered PK_ParentTable the request is blocked, while for non-clustered index it is granted.
    Thank you, Erland for the idea and explanations.
    The only thing that upsets me is that this solution cannot be applied, because I don't want to convert PK_ParentTable from clustered to non-clustered just to avoid blocking issues. It is a pity that SQL Server is not smart enough to realize that:
    ParentTable.PARENT_ID is not changed and, as a result, should not be locked
    ChildTable.PARENT_ID is not actually changed either (old value in my example is 1 and the new value is also 1) and, as a result, there is no need at all for validating the foreign key.
    In fact, the problem I described is just a tip of the iceberg. The real challenge is that I have deadlocks because of the FK validation. In reality, the first transaction has an additional statement which updates ChildTable:
    SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL READ UNCOMMITTED;
    BEGIN TRAN
    UPDATE ParentTable
    SET VALUE = 'Test'
    WHERE PARENT_ID = 1;
    UPDATE ChildTable
    SET VALUE = 'Test'
    WHERE PARENT_ID = 1;
    The result is famous message:
    Msg 1205, Level 13, State 51, Line xx
    Transaction (Process ID xx) was deadlocked on lock resources with another process and has been chosen as the deadlock victim. Rerun the transaction.
    I know that if I change the order of the two statements, it will solve the deadlock issue. But let's imagine I cannot do it. What are the other options?
    Alexey

  • Problem with Foreign Key relationships in SAP R/3 4.7

    Hi Experts,
    I am trying to create a foreign key relationship between 2 transparent tables in SAP R/3 4.7
    Table 1:ZAAVNDR (MANDT (pk), VENDORNO (pk), NAME, REGION, COUNTRY (fk)) Foreign Key Table
    Table 2: ZAAVNDRREF(MANDT(pk), COUNTRY (pk)) ---Check table
    I have added few valid countries in check table but when I am adding some records in foreign key table with invalid countries these records are not being restricted and are still successfully going into the table.
    Could any one please help in this.
    Thanks in anticipation.
    -Amit

    Hi Sandra,
    Many thanks for your response and providing time of yours.
    Now, I have done exactly the same thing, but still it is the same.
    I have created two new tables as below:
    ZAAVREF (Check table)
    MANDT (PK)
    COUNTRY (PK) Domain:ZAACOUNT (CHAR 10)
    ZAAV1 (Foreign key table)
    MANDT (PK)
    COUNTRY (PK) Domain:ZAACOUNT (CHAR 10)
    Then I have created FK on country of foreign key table ZAAV1 and then SE16 (for table ZAAVREF)->Create Entries-> Entered values for Country only->Save....Records entered with valid Country values.
    After that SE16 (for table ZAAV1)->Create Entries-->Entered an Invalid country->Save->Still the record entered to the Database successfully....
    Could you please let me know where I am going wrong.
    I am using SAP R/3 4.7 and creating tables using Tools->ABAP Workbench->Development->ABAP dictionary

  • Binding for table produces list for other tables using foreign key and crea

    Using
    software Jdev 11G, WLS 11G, Oracle DB 11G, Windows Vista platform
    technology EJB 3.0, jspx, backing beans, session bean
    I cannot create a namedquery on my secondary table. The method for the column uses the entity object rather than the name and value of the column.
    For instance,
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    Products has a many to one to the Coketruck
    I need to return the products from the product table based on the CokeTruck but I cannot create a namedQuery because the method in the Product table is an entity object type instead of a long that I can use to look up all the products based off the column truck_id.
    This is what I was expecting…
    Private Long truckId;
    public Long getTruckId() {
    return truckId;
    public void setTruckId (Long truckId) {
    this. truckId = truckId;
    Instead this is what I have…
    @ManyToOne
    @JoinColumn(name = "TRUCK_ID")
    private Coketruck coketruck;
    this. coketruck = coketruck
    public Coketruck getCoketruck() {
    return coketruck;
    public void set Coketruck (Coketruck coketruck) {
    this. coketruck = coketruck;
    How do I do a query on the Product table to return all the products that are in the coketruck?
    If I do the following it expects for me to pass the Entity Object which I cannot use as search criteria for my find method.
    @NamedQuery(name = "Products.findById", query = "select o from Products o where o.truckId = :truckId")
    On a different note but the same song…
    I noticed that when I look at my Session Bean Data Contols that the coketruck already has a list of the products. I have created a jsp page with a backing bean and have been able to use the namedquery on the coketruck entity to retrieve the productList. Unfortunately I need to sort the products by type and was also not able to find where to perform the work to be able to iterate through the productList to get my desired display. Therefore I started looking at doing another namedquery that would only retrieve the product_type ordering by the truckId.
    Seems I have come full circle… I don’t care what method I have to use to get the info back.
    Any help is greatly appreciated!

    user9005175 wrote:
    Hi!
    I work on an application wich uses a shopping cart stored in a database. The shopping cart uses two tables:
    CART: Holds information common for one shopping cart: the user it is connected to etc.
    - Primary key: CART_ID
    CART_ROW: One row in the cart, e.g. one new product to buy.
    - Primary key: ROW_ID
    - Foreign key: CART_ROW.CART_ID references CART.CART_ID
    From the code the rows in the cart are collected per cart, as is modelled by the foreign key. There exists one more relationship, which we use in the code, but which is not modelled by a foreign key in the database. One row can be dependent on another row, which makes the other row a parent.
    CART_ROW has a column PARENT_ID which references CART_ROW.ROW_ID.
    Should we add a foreign key for PARENT_ID? Or are there any questions to consider when it is a foreign key to the same table?
    I suggest to add foreign key it wont harm the performance (except while on insert when there would be validation for the foreign key). But it would prevent users to insert wrong/corrupt data either through code or directly by loggin in the database.
    A while ago we added indexes, both on ROW_ID and on PARENT_ID. Could the index on PARENT_ID have been harmful, since there is no foreign key?
    Index on parent_id would only be harmful if you do not make use of index after creating it (i.e. there is no query which make use of this index).
    And if you decide to have a foreign key on parent_id then I suggest to have index too on parent_id as it would be helpful atleast when you delete any record in this table.
    Best regards!

  • How to customize the foreign key constraint exception

    Hi All,
    I have two table, A and B.
    B.ref is foreign key references to A.id in database.
    Now I want to delete a row of table A in screen, error messages are :
    "Constraint "xxx.xxxx_S_FK1" is violated during post operation "Delete" using SQL statement "DELETE FROM xxxxxx WHERE xxxxxxxxx" and "ORA-02292: integrity constraint (xxx.xxxx_S_FK1) violated - child record found"
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    Thank you!

    You can override the DoDML() method in EntityImpl something like follows
    @Override
    protected void doDML(int i, TransactionEvent transactionEvent) {
    try
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    catch(DMLConstraintException _ex) {
    if(_ex.getErrorCode().equals("26048") ) {
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    sid

  • Questions about creating a foreign key on a large table

    Hello @ll,
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    werteart 22 MB
    werteartarchiv_pt 223 GB
    werteartarchiv_pt (Index) 243 GB
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    sqlplus ORA-00604: Fehler auf rekursiver SQL-Ebene 1
    sqlplus ORA-01652: Temp-Segment kann nicht um 128 in Tablespace TEMPS00 erweitert
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    alter table werteartarchiv_pt
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    foreign key (schiene, werteartadresse, merkmale)
    references werteart (schiene, werteartadresse, merkmale)
    on delete cascade
    initially deferred deferrable;
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    My questions now are, and hopefully someone is here, who can answer all or a part of it:
    1) Why does Oracle need temporary tablespace to create the foreign key? The foreign key uses the same columns like the primary key.
    2a) Is it possible to tweak the statement without using the temporary tablespace?
    2b) If it is not possible to avoid the usage of the temporary tablespace, is there a formula how to calculate the needed temporary tablespace?
    3) Is it possible to modify data in the tables while the foreign key is created or is the whole table locked during the process?
    Any help or hint is appreciated.
    Regards,
    Bjoern

    RollinHand wrote:
    My questions now are, and hopefully someone is here, who can answer all or a part of it:
    1) Why does Oracle need temporary tablespace to create the foreign key? The foreign key uses the same columns like the primary key.Because it's validating the data to ensure the foreign key won't be violated. If you had specified ENABLE NOVALIDATE when creating it then the existing data in the table wouldn't need to be checked and the statement should complete instantly (future data added would be checked by the constraint).
    http://download.oracle.com/docs/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/general005.htm
    Search for "Enable Novalidate Constraint State"

  • Delete a user from a table whose name is a foreign key in other tables

    Dear All;
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  • Problem with foreign key in entity bean in WSED..Plzzzzz help!!!!!

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    Hi Sandra,
    Many thanks for your response and providing time of yours.
    Now, I have done exactly the same thing, but still it is the same.
    I have created two new tables as below:
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    COUNTRY (PK) Domain:ZAACOUNT (CHAR 10)
    Then I have created FK on country of foreign key table ZAAV1 and then SE16 (for table ZAAVREF)->Create Entries-> Entered values for Country only->Save....Records entered with valid Country values.
    After that SE16 (for table ZAAV1)->Create Entries-->Entered an Invalid country->Save->Still the record entered to the Database successfully....
    Could you please let me know where I am going wrong.
    I am using SAP R/3 4.7 and creating tables using Tools->ABAP Workbench->Development->ABAP dictionary

  • JDeveloper 9i, Foreign Keys and LOVs.

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  • How to apply Foreign Keys on top of a Common Lookup table

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      , CompId INT  NOT NULL
      , CdValue VARCHAR ( 8 ) NOT NULL
      , CdValueDesc VARCHAR ( 255 ) NULL
      , AltValueDesc VARCHAR ( 100 ) NULL
      , DefaultInd CHAR ( 1 ) NULL
      , OrderNum SMALLINT NULL
      , ActiveCd CHAR ( 1 ) NULL
      , ExpireDtm SMALLDATETIME NULL
      , EffectDtm SMALLDATETIME NULL
      , ModById INT  NULL
      , ModDtm SMALLDATETIME NULL
      , CreateById INT  NULL
      , CreateDtm SMALLDATETIME NULL
      , CONSTRAINT PC_dbo_EcdDetail
        PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( PartyGrpId ASC, CdTyp ASC, CompId ASC, CdValue ASC )
        ON FG_Data
    ) ON FG_Data;
    I did though run into one forum where a person brought up a great idea. Filtered Foreign Keys, what a novel concept, if it could work it would make so much less code to fix an issue like this. :)
    ALTER TABLE dbo.BusinessStatus WITH NOCHECK
    ADD CONSTRAINT FK_dbo_BusinessStatus_CodesTable FOREIGN KEY (LoanStsDtCd) REFERENCES dbo.CodesTable (CdValue) WHERE CdTyp = 'Status'
    U.S. Army Airborne! The only way to fly

    >> I have several common lookup tables where many of the "codes" reside for many different code types. <<
    No! This is called “Automobiles, S quids and Lady Gaga” SQL and laugh at you or fire you or both. A table is a set; a set has one and only one kind of element it it. This is the basis of RDBMS and First Normal Form. 
    This is so bad it has a name; OTLT for “One True Lookup Table” ;I give an example of how stupid this in one of my books where a Dewey Decimal Classification for Churches is the same as the ICD code for deformed testicles. 
    There is no such crap as a “generic_type_code” in RDBMS. It either a “<something in particular>_type” or a “<something in particular>_code” in data modeling and the ISO-11179 standards.
    You have more NULL-able columns in one table than you should have in an entire schema! 
    You have audit data (creation and modification) in the row under audit. This is both stupid and illegal. You cannot expose the audit trail to the data user by law. When you delete a row, you also destroy the audit trail –Doh! 
    You have no CHECK() constraint on the (effective_date, expiry_date) pair. 
    Putting “_table” in a table name is a design error called a “tibble” to make fun of how silly it. You might want to download the PDF of bad SQL code smells from Red Gate so you can avoid things like this. 
    >>  the CdValue column is the column that is used throughout the hundreds of tables that use this codes table, and their corresponding column is not named the same. <<
    “_value” and “_code” are both what ISO-1179 calls an attribute property. It is a silly as a list of adjectives without a noun. 
    Each encoding is a separate table in a valid schema, each with its own validation and verification. You have to stop doing this. This is fundamental!! 
    --CELKO-- Books in Celko Series for Morgan-Kaufmann Publishing: Analytics and OLAP in SQL / Data and Databases: Concepts in Practice Data / Measurements and Standards in SQL SQL for Smarties / SQL Programming Style / SQL Puzzles and Answers / Thinking
    in Sets / Trees and Hierarchies in SQL

  • Field MATNR does not have a foreign key; as a result no intervals are allow

    Hello,
    We are having ROH and FERT material , in that we were entered the wrong Item category group , we need to change the
    Item category group through mass posting through MM17. we are getting below given error
    "Field MATNR does not have a foreign key; as a result no intervals are allowed"
    Message no. M&132
    Diagnosis
    You have either specified an interval such as from 1 to 10 or M* for a field, or you have left the field blank, corresponding to the interval *. However, since there is no foreign key for this field, the system cannot resolve the interval into valid single values.
    Procedure
    Enter only single values for this field.
    We have checked the the structure MPGD_MASS in SE11, and here foreign key  mark is tciked in "entry help/ check.
    How to solve this error.
    Regards
    sapman man

    how did you then proceed, on the selection screen:
    did you just use the change tab or did you work as well or only at the create tab?
    What did you enter in the selection?
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