Inheritence / Aggregates / Class / Bean question

Hi all, I'm wondering if anybody has tried/succeeded in the following:
We have a User bean and a User class which we would like to map to one DB table with an aggregate. The user must be available un-aggregated in the mapping workbench for use by other classes which do not require the bean wrapper, so we created a ToplinkUser extending from User, which we turn on aggregation for. The bean then contains a value holder interface attribute dataObject, which we map TopLinkUser [using aggregation as said above].
Potential issues:
1) The plain User needs a PK mapping in the DB table, which then gets inherited by ToplinkUser, so the bean ends up with 2 writable PK mappings. The bean mapping must be writable to allow for sequencing.
2) The User has a many to many Roles mapping which gets inherited by ToplinkUser and shows up on the list of fields that must be mapped in the aggregate usage inside the bean. Is it valid to point this back to the PK?
Thanks in advance for any thoughts, tips, ideas, or someone who already knows it isn't possible.
- Jesse

1 - I'm not sure I follow the issue -- If you have inheritance setup on the descriptor, the mappings should not be duplicated in the subclass. You can override the super class mapping by right-clicking on the descriptor, and setting the visability on "Map inherited attributes".
2 - It shouldn't have to be mapped, if there is a little "up arrow" on the mapping, that means it's inherited and mapped in the superclass.
At runtime TopLink checks a descriptor for a mapping, and if it can't find it, if there is inheritance, it goes to the "super descriptor".
- Don

Similar Messages

Java class bean can not access to DB in JSP file

Hi, I wrote a java class bean in order to access to MySql database ,and this bean is used in a JSP file,so that the bean can query from DB and then display the queried information on the JSP file,but it can not work correctly,the following is the source code and error message popup by the system,
does anybody has experience in solving thus question,Please reply ,Thank you for your help.
%@ page contentType="text/html;charset=UTF-8" language="java" %>
<%@ page import = "java.sql.*" %>
<jsp:useBean id="conn" scope="page" class="news.conn"/>
<html>
<head>
<meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=gb2312">
<title>1</title>
<style>

</style>
</head>
<body>
<table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" style="border-collapse: collapse" bordercolor="#111111" width="100%" id="AutoNumber1">
<tr>
<td width="100%">
<img border="0" src="images/ruanjian.jpg" width="770" height="154"></td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td width="100%">@</td>
</tr>
</table>
<table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" style="border-collapse: collapse" bordercolor="#111111" width="100%" id="AutoNumber2">
<tr>
<td width="13%">@</td>
<td width="87%">
<img border="0" src="images/mid-rdxw2.gif" width="101" height="18"><p>
<%
          ResultSet rs,rsNest;
String strSql=null;
strSql = "select * from news where TYPE=1";
          rs = conn.executeQuery(strSql);
          while (rs.next()){
%>
<span class="s"> <a href="newsContent.jsp?newsId=<%=rs.getInt(id")%">"><%=rs.getString("Title")%></a><br>
<%
%>
<p>
<img border="0" src="images/mid-hyxw2.gif" width="94" height="19"></p>
<%
strSql="select * from news where TYPE=2";
          rs = conn.executeQuery(strSql);
          while (rs.next()){
%>
<span class="s"> <a href="newsContent.jsp?newsId=<%=rs.getInt("id")%>"><%=rs.getString("Title")%></a><br>
<%
%>
<p>@</td>
</tr>
</table>
<p align="center">Study Online</p>
<p align="center">@</p>
</body>
</html>
Error message:
type Exception report
message
description The server encountered an internal error () that prevented it from fulfilling this request.
exception
org.apache.jasper.JasperException: Exception in JSP: /newsMain.jsp:47
44: strSql = "select * from news where TYPE=1";
45:           rs = conn.executeQuery(strSql);
46:
47:           while (rs.next()){
48:
49: %>
50:
Stacktrace:
     org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.handleJspException(JspServletWrapper.java:451)
     org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:373)
     org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:329)
     org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:265)
     javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:729)
root cause
java.lang.NullPointerException
     org.apache.jsp.newsMain_jsp._jspService(newsMain_jsp.java:98)
     org.apache.jasper.runtime.HttpJspBase.service(HttpJspBase.java:98)
     javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:729)
     org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:331)
     org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:329)
     org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:265)
     javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:729)
note The full stack trace of the root cause is available in the Apache Tomcat/5.5.27 l</a>

nogoodatcoding wrote:
Tolls wrote:
Is that Jasper Exception telling us where the problem is in the jsp, though?
If it is, then "rs" is null in the call rs.next()...which means conn.executeQuery() is returning null. Which means that whatever class conn is (news.conn?) has a problem maybe?That's possible. Though, it may just be the case that the 'conn' object itself is null! That line is the first place where it's being used and there are no checks that I can see...we'll have to wait for the OP to investigate and reply I guess.That's what I originally thought, then I noticed it was saying line 47, which is the rs.next() line. Assuming Jasper is correct in its choice of line, then it's the rs that's null. Which means the conn is doing strange things.
Edit: Now that I think about it, going by the previous thread the OP posted, I'm wondering whether news.conn class is their attempt to move the JDBC stuff out of the JSP page, and it's grabbing the "real" connection (java.sql.Connection) and getting the result set and returning it...or getting something wrong and returning null.
Edited by: Tolls on 11-Jun-2009 12:24

Classes & Beans

I have a valid class name that I would like to create a bean with. My bean does not allow an empty constructor (MyBean() ).
I'm doing the following:
Class newClass = Class.forName(className);
How can I create a new instance of my bean using that class? I cannot do:
Bean bean = (Bean)newClass; since I have to pass some parameters to my bean.
In addition, the bean name will NOT be available to me at design time, it will only be pass to me as a parameter...
Any ideas?

Declare a static factory method in the bean that takes the said parameters. (sory for the tabs that disappear...)
Bean class:
public class Bean
     private String myName = null;
     public Bean( String name )
          myName = name;
     public static Bean createInstance( String s )
          return new Bean( s );
     public String getName()
          return "My name is " + myName;
Loading class:
public class BeanLoader
     public static void main( String[] args )
          try
               Class beanClass = Class.forName( "Bean" );
               Method method = beanClass.getDeclaredMethod(
                    "createInstance",
                    new Class[]{ String.class } );
               Bean bean = ( Bean ) method.invoke( null, new Object[]{ "MyName" } );
               System.out.println( bean.getName() );
          catch( Exception ex )
               ex.printStackTrace();
}

Deploying multiple beans & support classes, related questions

I have an application that I'm trying to deploy to the latest JServer with Oracle 8i 8.1.6 on Windows 2000. We used JDeveloper to write the code and to deploy the EJBs. I have some questions and it'd be great if someone can answer them.
All documentation seem to indicate that beans must be deployed one at a time. Is this the case? If not, how?
If so, what is the "correct" way to deploy helper classes which are used by more than one bean?
Is there always only one instance of a class in the database, even though I might deploy the same helper class with different beans? If not, is there any mechanism to ensure consistency?
Can I just update a helper class in the database?
How do I see what classes are in the database? How do I manipulate them (e.g. delete, change, add, view size) ?
Is there an easy way to "clean out" the database of all classes, so as to start anew?
null

The Java-related documentation was that I was reading. I have a followup question. Is it possible for me to simply deploy some beans without regard for all the helper classes, then at a later point do a load java on all classes that I expect to use, and have it all work?
Thanks. You've been great help.
<BLOCKQUOTE><font size="1" face="Verdana, Arial">quote:</font><HR>Originally posted by JDev Team (Laura):
Hi Gerald,
I will take a stab at answering your questions:
1. Are you talking about the JDeveloper doc, or the Oracle8i EJB doc?
2. When you create the Deployment Profile in JDeveloper using the Deployment Profile wizard, any classes your EJB depends on should get included in the deployment archive by the dependency analyzer. You can see the contents of what will be deployed by selecting the Preview button on the Sources page of the wizard.
If you want to explictly EXCLUDE a helper class because it has already been deployed with another bean, you can choose the Advanced button. Select one of the Library, archive, class pages on the Advanced dialog, and add the class to the Exclude list. Select OK, then check the Preview button again to make sure it was excluded.
If you are deploying a number of beans that user the same helper classes, the helper classes will get deployed with the first bean, and on subsequent deployments, the process will detect that the helper class has already been deployed and will check to see if it has changed since the last deployment. I believe it uses a timestamp comparison for this, but I'm not positive. If it detects the source and target are the same, it won't redeploy the class.
If you just want to update a helper class for the EJB, you can use the Java Stored Procedure deployment in the Deployment Profile Wizard, include the helper class in the deployment archive, and do not publish anything.
You can use the Database Browser in JDeveloper to see what deployed Java Classes, and EJBs are stored in your database. Double-click on the IIOP connection you used to deploy the EJBs (under the Connections node in the Navigator). This will display the Database Browser. Expand the appropriate nodes to view the deployed objects.
To see deployed Java Classes, double-click on a JDBC connection and expand the Schema node and then the Deployed Java Classes node.
Many operations are available from the context menus in the Database Browser, including Drop. Others you will have to perform from SQL*Plus or the command line. See the Oracle8i Java Developer's Guide for more information on SQL commands and command line syntax for altering Java objects in the database. This doc, and the EJB and CORBA Developer's Guide are available online from OTN on the Doc pages.
You can use dropjava to drop all classes that were deployed in a given deployment archive by specifying the name of the jar file used during deployment. Again, see the Java Developer's Guide for the syntax.<HR></BLOCKQUOTE>
null

Jsp,servlet,bean question,please help

The Tomcat Web server set up like this.......
The directory structure is
e:/sampleapp/WEB-INF/classes
/lib
And the web.xml is in the WEB-INF for the use of ay potential servlet.
The basic understanding is that all the .java files go into the WEB-INF directory and the .class files go into the classes directory.
All the .jsp files go into the sampleapp directory.Till here is correct I feel.
Now for my qustion......
I plan to use jsp,servlet and beans for a potential web application...,where do all these files go?,just the same as above or is there a difference.
Hope that I have given a reasonable explaination to my question.
Thanks for any replies
AS

All of your compiled servlet and java bean (java
classes in general) will be placed into the following
directory (under a directory structure matching the
java package they are in):
e:/sampleapp/WEB-INF/classesAll of your .jar files that are used as libraries (not
your .jar files for applets):
e:/sampleapp/WEB-INF/libAll of the rest of your JSP files, javascript files,
HTML files, JAR files, images files, etc. will go into
the following directory:
e:/sampleappYou must make sure you put your sampleapp directory
where tomcat can load it. Or use the admin tool to
load it. If you make a .WAR file with a corresponding
web.xml file in it, it will simplify loading it into
tomcat. It also will help you do your servlet
mappings, etc. I hope this helps.Thanks for your timely response.To add to it,let me tell you.
The <b>bean</b> files are put into a package right,so they should be put into the WEB-INF/classes/<package name>
What about The <b> servlet </b> files...... they are just put into the WEB-INF/classes/ directory????
Kindly let me know.
Thanks
AS

General Design With Database and Session Bean Question

I have an application I am developing where users connect to individual databases located on a server. When they login an admin table is accessed which shows what databases they have permissions to. I am then storing the connection to the database in a backing bean. Hoping to use this connection throughout the session. Is this a good practice to have a users connection left open over the session? I can't create a database pool for each individual database and each user for that database.
If I can store that database connection in a session bean. How do I access that connection from another bean. Or from another java class? I am using Glassfish for my application server with JSF1.2. I have looked at resource injection but have not had any luck with sharing the session bean information.
Sorry if this is a trivial question. I have been a Java developer for years. But just starting developing webapps using JSF.
Thanks

JuCobb2 wrote:
I am then storing the connection to the database in a backing bean. Hoping to use this connection throughout the session. Is this a good practice to have a users connection left open over the session? No it is not. Why should you do so? Always keep the lifetime of connection, statement and resultset as short as possible.

Class heirarchy question

This beginning of this post sounds similar to another of my recent posts. The end question is different. I'm just providing the atmosphere for the situation
I am coming from a c++ world into objective-c++/cocoa. I work for a company that sells static libraries to be used by other developers. Distributed with these libraries are, of course, the header files.
Currently, I am tasked with adding cocoa support to out library. I am using a subclass of NSOpenGL (we'll call it myNSGL) to render to. For proof of concept, I placed the rendering code in the instance methods of myNSGL, and called them from my controller class. This all works fine, able to render, and so on...
Now, I need to move this rendering code from the myNSGL class to inside our static library, abstracting it from the end user. This is where I have some questions.
In the class myNSGL, I am overriding the initWithFrame method. It creates an NSOpenGLPixelFormat then calls [super initWithFrame: pixelFormat:]. Fine, no problem. Here is the problem. I want to move all custom code (setup, rendering, etc...) inside the static library and only provide client developer with the h and mm files (In IB, they'll need to set the View's class to myNSGL). My question is, How can I initialize myNSGL's super class from inside my lib code? This call is vital, but I don't want it exposed to the client developer. Maybe this will help to visualize:
// Client Application code:
// client.h:
#include "myNSGL.h"
@interface ......{
myLib *_mylib;
IBOutlet myNSGL *_mynsgl;
// client.mm:
#import "client.h"
@implementation .......
- (id)init{
// use instance of my static lib.
_mylib->initializeNSGL();
// more calls to _mylib...
@end
// Static lib, lib.cpp:
#include "myNSGL.h"
class myLib{
private:
myNSGL* _mynsgl;
NSOpenGLContext* _context;
public:
void initializeNSGL()
GLuint attribs[] =
NSOpenGLPFAWindow,
NSOpenGLPFADoubleBuffer,
0
NSOpenGLPixelFormat* fmt = [[NSOpenGLPixelFormat alloc] initWithAttributes: (NSOpenGLPixelFormatAttribute*) attribs];
// PROBLEM!!! can't call anything on myNSGL's super.
[_windowRef [super initWithFrame:[_windowRef frame] pixelFormat: [fmt autorelease]]];
//////////////////////////////////////////

Your client developers shouldn't need any .mm files. All you should distribute are the headers and the library.
What you need to do is separate the headers into a public interface and a private interface. The public interface should contain all a client should ever need to see, plus instance data. The private interface is implemented as an Objective-C category. Then, your .mm files will import both the public and the private interfaces.
If you want to hide your instance data, that will be more work. You would have to use protocols or maybe dummy header files. You could maybe have a build stage that strips the data out of the headers and exports them into your framework. I don't know if that would work or not - probably not.

Class architecture question

I am coming from a c++ world into objective-c++/cocoa. I work for a company that sells static libraries to be used by other developers. Distributed with these libraries are, of course, the header files.
Currently, I am tasked with adding cocoa support to out library. I am using a subclass of NSOpenGL (we'll call it myNSGL) to render to. For proof of concept, I placed the rendering code in the instance methods of myNSGL, and called them from my controller class. This all works fine, able to render, and so on...
Now, I need to move this rendering code from the myNSGL class to inside our static library, abstracting it from the end user. This is where I have some questions.
I am compiling myNSGL into the static library. I would hope that providing ONLY the h file to the client application developer would be enough. There is a problem however. The client application will compile with the header and static lib, but at runtime it complains that interface builder doesn't know what myNSGL is. In IB, I have the view's class set to myNSGL, but without the myNSGL.mm file, interface builder is lost. The question is: Is there a way to distribute ONLY the lib and h file to customers (not the lib, h, AND mm file)?
Thanks for reading

Hi Zakk - I think this thread is going to need Etresoft, but I have a few questions.. and on the odd chance that one of them is relevant, you'll be ahead of the game to have the answers already posted by the time you get some more help.
... adding cocoa support to our library
This line scares me so I'd like to rule out my worst fears before continuing. Please tell me the Cocoa support will be a separate binary, ok?
I would hope that providing ONLY the h file to the client application developer would be enough.
Yes, the header certainly should be enough. Otherwise, I don't think anyone would claim that Cocoa is object oriented. AFAIK a header is all we get to see of any Cocoa framework.
at runtime it complains that interface builder doesn't know what myNSGL is.
Erm.. IB doesn't have anything to do with runtime. So could you clarify that? If you're getting a runtime message about IB, please post it, ok?
In IB, I have the view's class set to myNSGL, but without the myNSGL.mm file, interface builder is lost.
AFAIK IB only reads the @interface files. I've been confused about this in the past when it seemed like IB was in fact responding to a change in the @implementation, but each time it seemed that way further testing showed I'd reached the wrong conclusion. Of course, if someone who wasn't a team player snuck a @interface into your .mm, all bets are off.
In general, I would be sure the .h's were correctly included into the project and I would review some of the docs on building a Cocoa library. The easiest way to make sure Xcode is set up correctly would be to start the project with the OS X Cocoa Static Library template. I had a couple ADC links to post for you, but suddenly all my dev site links are broken. Let me know if you have any shortage of library docs.
\- Ray
p.s.: Just saw you already have Et's attention.

EJB 3.0 Session Bean question

Hi there,
How'd I expose a method of Stateless Session Bean in EJB 3.0? I don't seem to find any annotation for that.
Thanks in advance.
Saeed

If you need to expose method implemented in Session bean, you can invoke the method call from within another method called in Client.
This method has to be defined in the remote interface . The method you are trying to invoke can be defined somewhere else but called in your bean class from within the method definedin the remote interface.

Message-driven bean questions

Hello,
i'm an Italian student trying to develop java applications in NetBeans IDE 6.1 with GlassFish V2, using Java EE 5; since I only recently approached java web programming, I have encountered some problems in using enterprise beans, especially message-driven ones: to get in touch with the stuff, I have created an enterprise application project in NetBeans with a plain message-driven bean and a servlet who sends a message to this bean, following an online netbeans tutorial.
I'm using annotations to refer the resource in the servlet (the jms name I assigned the bean is "TestBean"):
@Resource(mappedName="jms/TestBeanFactory")
private ConnectionFactory connectionFactory;
@Resource(mappedName="jms/TestBean")
private Queue queue;I send the message by creating a connection, producing the message with a MessageProducer object, and sending it:
Connection connection = connectionFactory.createConnection();
Session session = connection.createSession(false, Session.AUTO_ACKNOWLEDGE);
MessageProducer messageProducer = session.createProducer(queue);
TextMessage message = session.createTextMessage("This is a message.");
messageProducer.send(message);
messageProducer.close();
connection.close();In the message-driven bean, I have my onMessage() method catching the message and writing to the system.out his text content:
public void onMessage(Message message)
        TextMessage msg = null;
        try
            if (message instanceof TextMessage)
                msg = (TextMessage) message;
                String x = msg.getText();
                System.out.println(x);
        catch (Exception e)
            e.printStackTrace();
            m_ctx.setRollbackOnly();
        catch (Throwable te)
            te.printStackTrace();
    }The message is sent and received, and the content printed. Ok, here are my questions:
1) in the output window of netbeans I see the output but also an exception: "DirectConsumer:Caught Exception delivering messagecom.sun.messaging.jmq.io.Packet cannot be cast to com.sun.messaging.jms.ra.DirectPacket". What does that mean?
2) I can't figure out how to make the bean answer this message to the servlet...and of course the servlet receive this response: in plain words, I would like to send back another message from the bean to the servlet, and process it. Can someone explain me how to do that?
Thanks?

1) in the output window of netbeans I see the output but also an exception: "DirectConsumer:Caught Exception delivering messagecom.sun.messaging.jmq.io.Packet cannot be cast to com.sun.messaging.jms.ra.DirectPacket". What does that mean?casting issue, but i don't know why.
2) I can't figure out how to make the bean answer this message to the servlet...and of course the servlet receive this response: in plain words, I would like to send back another message from the bean to the servlet, and process it. Can someone explain me how to do that?a message driven bean cannot sent a response back. MDB is asynchronous. if you need to send a response back, you
shouldn't be using an MDB. In that case, it sounds like you want a synchronous response. let a SLSB do it.
%

Preloader and Document Class BIG question (yeap please help)

Hy,
I know that this its a question posted many, many times, but
after searching the net, reading a lot of books and searching this
forum too, I cant get out with a solution. If I'd say for sure
there is no possibility to create something like this, I just go
back to old methods but is not the scope of Adobe with AS3 to
encourage the use of OOP principle or not?
The problem:
I have a single fla file (AS3) with a single frame on
timeline, frame that its there when you will create the file with
flash. In the library I have different symbols, that for simplicity
are only jpg image, (BitmapData) checked for export for
ActionScript and exported on frame one. An external .as file called
DocumentClass its off course my Document Class
This its all that I want to do with the fla, the goal its to
create, animate etc. only with AS3 in external classes, no timeline
script. I don't want to load external files, XML, or else in this
movie. I just want a single swf after compilation, no additional
files.
Ok, how do I create a preloader that will take care of
starting the logic after the whole swf its loaded and in the same
time shows the user a percentage or a load bar or something that
its not the blank screen when the swf its downloading. I want to do
this without another swf that load this swf, or timeline scripts,
or place all the content on second frame and then gotoAndStop to
the third frame. All this are not solution but cheap tricks, that
are against all this OOP principle that I just continue to read in
books and here from guru programmers.
The big question is:
It is possible to create a preloader, when use a document
class with your fla? And if yes, how?
I know that the Document Class its not instantiated if its
not fully loaded, if that's true when the document class will be
fully loaded? maybe after the whole movie its loaded? And, if its
true, it will never show a percentage bar "while" the movie its
loaded. And if that's true WHY use a document class anyway?
Thank you for reading this and I really wait to get some
answer.

I am pretty sure you cannot do self preloader with one frame
and all the objects in the library. I guess the key here is
one-frame design. Screen refreshes (renders) only when all the
scripts in the frame are executed - this is a very important thing
to understand about how Flash works. Yes, you can force screen
refresh with updateAfterEvent() method but it is attached to a
handful of events only (MouseEvent and TimerEvent) but, again, all
this functionality is available only after first frame scripts are
executed. Thus, it seems like the only way to create preloader from
within SWF is to use multiple frames and set library objects to
load in later (not first) frame.
quote:
And if that's true WHY use a document class anyway?
Well, preloader is the last thing that would be on my mind in
terms of using AS3 ability to link DocumentClass to the top movie.
This feature allows for very sophisticated architectural
approaches. It has no connection to preloader as to any other
features developer wants to implement. Neither it depends on or
negates timeline. As a matter of fact, although I love one-frame
applications, I find on numerous occasions that my application
would be more efficient if I used several (at least two) frames.
gotoAndStop is not deprecated. It is a valid MovieClip class'
method. After all, having only one frame doesn't mean not having
frames at all - there is one already. Frames are fundament of
Flash. AS3 did introduce frameless entities like Sprite, etc. but
it doesn't mean that frames are going anywhere.
I would agree that timeline code is inferior to
classed/packaged (read: better organized) code but, still, how is
it not OOP? Frame is an Object, right? Why using timeline is cheap
and not a solution?
On a side note, I see too many times how some authors (and
managers) are pushing their agenda (or close mindedness) onto their
audience with no real substantiation. Claiming that timeline in
Flash is not valid architectural decision from OOP standpoint is
totally wrong. As wrong as strict adherence to design patterns. I
don't think there is sharply defined "right" or "wrong" in
programming. One finds the best optimal solution. The goal is to
create something that works fine. Unless, of course, the process is
the goal - but very few of us can afford focusing on the process.

Document class import question

I had wrote a previous post about output errors I was receiving when trying to load an xml photogallery. The error wer output errors only and ended up not effecting the swf (at least I didn't think so) after go ing nuts about a week I came across a post on another forum a few months back as someone else was asking the same question and it turns out someone else answered. It has to do with an external.as file, I know that the photogallery has other files that need to load besides the swf. the image, xml and a folder with 6 .as files.
SO I know that I was not importing those files to the swf I was calling the photogallery to load into and I now understand this but here is my question.
How do I import the 6 .as files as they sit in a folder called GS? Do I have to import each one separately thru the properties inspector?
rder

OK zip is here
http://www.mediafire.com/?eqmiyit4yi5
with the following files
main.fla / swf
folder swfs
(inside)
gallery1.fla,html,swf
gallery2.fla,html,swf
folder GS
(inside)
.as files various
folder load1
(inside)
xml, images
folder load2
(inside)
xml, images
main.swf calls the loader
problem:
galleries open and function but with output errors
I know it has something to do with importing the class paths .as files after each gallery is swapped out I should see an output message "gallery destroyed" but instead see null reference errors
any help in resolving this would be great
rdef

Java bean question

Hi ,
I have small jsp file.having 11 elements.
I need to set those values to the javabean class.
and then I want to retrieve those values in servlet.
How to set the values to the bean class.
we can set values when we call another jsp and get those.
but in servlet.I don't want to maintain hidden fileds of all 11 .
is there any possibility to set the values
help me.

hi,
you can use '<jsp:usebean.... setproperty=>' tag, which is automatically taking the values from the form, whether elements' names and the names of the methods in the beanclass are same (simple rules to be followed). once it comes in the bean, according to the scope set for the bean, it can be available in the context. When it is in the context, from serlvet you can access it.
Hope i have understood the problem and please let me know if any.
thanks
--Karthik

Missing Class error from handler class - urgent question!

Hi,
I am getting an "Missing Class" error when running a web service. The web service was generated from a Java class via the "create J2EE web service" option.
The web service has a JAX-RPC handler class added, which belongs to the same package as a logging class. The logging class is used to write to a file for debug purposes. A "missing class" error is being generated whenever I attempt to invoke the web service (via the enterprise manager test util), the error refers to the logging class which is used by the main handler class. The JAX-RPC handler works fine by itself, the error is only seen when I attempt to use the logging class.
I have re-built, re-deployed from scratch again, but still get the same error! Am I missing something simple here?
thanks for any advice

Hello,
I have posted something similar, but I am not sure how to get over this issue. I am not sure if this is a code issue, I have scanned both EJB 2.0 and 2.1 specifications, but nothing caught my eye.
Here is the error I am getting starting this in JDeveloper 1013 :
Apr 11, 2006 12:17:49 AM com.evermind.server.Application setConfig
WARNING: Application: current-workspace-app is in failed state as initialization failedjava.lang.InstantiationException: Error initializing ejb-modules: [current-workspace-app:CNSI-JDev-7_Exp-7_0:DbUtilWrapper] - Unable to load ejb-class com.my.common.database.ejb.DbUtilWrapperBean, see section 23.2 of the EJB 2.1 specificationjava.lang.ExceptionInInitializerError: java.lang.NullPointerException
Here is the ejb-jar.xml :
<session>
<description>Session Bean ( Stateless )</description>
<display-name>DbUtilWrapper</display-name>
<ejb-name>DbUtilWrapper</ejb-name>
<home>com.my.common.database.ejb.DbUtilWrapperHome</home>
<remote>com.my.common.database.ejb.DbUtilWrapper</remote>
<local-home>com.my.common.database.ejb.DbUtilWrapperLocalHome</local-home>
<local>com.my.common.database.ejb.DbUtilWrapperLocal</local>
<ejb-class>com.my.common.database.ejb.DbUtilWrapperBean</ejb-class>
<session-type>Stateless</session-type>
<transaction-type>Container</transaction-type>
</session>
I am not sure if this should be in the assembly-descriptor, in ejb-jar.xml or orion-ejb-jar.xml :
<method-permission>
<unchecked/>
<method>
<ejb-name>DBUtilWrapper</ejb-name>
<method-name>*</method-name>
</method>
</method-permission>
Any ideas ?
Thanks

Java beans question

I am trying to write a simple bean and run it in the beanbox in the bdk1.1
I have written a jar file (SimpleBean.jar) that contains the files SimpleBean.class and manifest.tmp.
The manifest is :
Name: SimpleBean.class
Java-Bean: True
When i try to add the jar to the beanbox i get the following error:
"jar file d:\JavaBean\SimpleBean.jar didn't have any beans!
Each jar file needs to contain a manifest file describing which entries are beans. You can should provide a suitable manifest when you create the jar."
Could somone please tell me what i am doing wrong.Thanx

The manifest file name is MANIFEST.MF (not .tmp).
Have a look at {your jdk home}/docs/guide/jar/jar.html
JCG

Inheritence / Aggregates / Class / Bean question

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