OAM Webgate Ip validation problem caused by load balancer...

Hi all,
In my topology, i have 5 webgates on 5 OHS web servers running in reverse proxy mode . Those web servers are behind load balancer. Since load balancer is working in proxy mode, all requests seems to be coming from load balancer vip and this prevents ip validation at webgate side . Does anybody think that it is possible to solve this issue without changing load balancer configuration..
Regards,

Hi,
Randat, how can i reconfigure ip validation against x-forwarded-for? A custom authz plugin, or only a configuration change ? I'll keep on searching on this solution, but if you can share your solution , it'll be appriciated..
Ambarishmitra, i want to use ip validation but since all requests are coming from single ip i can't distinguish client ip's, that's my problem..
Thank you both,
Regards..

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********************************************************

It is my fault.
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http://weblogicserveradministration.blogspot.com/

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[email protected]

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Hi,
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([email protected])

Did you ever Get this to work?
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     Host as1.xyzco.local
     Version 10.1.2.0.2
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     Oracle Home E:\oracle\inf_1012
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     Farm as1db.xyzco.net
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     Oracle Home E:\oracle\mid_904
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I have more then half decent results with webcache as load balancer, but it still is a round robin (as mentioned before). This means that a session will not be transfered from one application server to the other once the session has been created.
So far I did not discover any benefits of a hardware loadbalancer over webcache, because (here it is again:) you are not able to transfer open sessions from one application server to the next. This has to do with the Oracle Forms architecture. In fact it is still client-server, only with the application server functioning as extra server ;)

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Could you post this in weblogic.developer.interest.plug-in? This group is for
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Mainak Datta wrote:
Has anyone encountered this before:
I have a cluster of two WLS 5.1 servers, hosting servlets that serve web
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Weblogic, Apache as well as IIS). I also have a tool that simulates
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As per documentation, as the load balancing while proxying requests to
servlets is round robin, I expect that the requests are uniformly
distributed across the two weblogic servers. But what I see is a bit
different. In one case I fired 15 requests and found that 11 went to first
server and 4 went to the other.
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the second one. I would expect that around half of the total requests
should be routed to each server everytime so that there is a proper load
balancing done by the proxy. I have not changed any configuration related
to the default load balancing algorithm. So I expect it is round-robin.
Has anyone encountered this before ? This happens to me irrespective of
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Hi,
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Hi Solomon,
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https://supportforums.cisco.com/message/3121939#3121939
Cheers!
Rob
Please support CSC Helps Haiti
https://supportforums.cisco.com/docs/DOC-8895
https://supportforums.cisco.com/docs/DOC-8727

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I want to split my traffic between two ISP's. I want all traffic to pass over one connection EXCEPT my VPN tunnels, which I want to use the second ISP. How should I set up (protocol binding?) to accomplish this? (I have run into various problems trying to load balance all traffic. So I am trying to "partition" traffic.)

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Jeff - you have a case open and both you and the customer support guy are chasing this down as and ALDSP and WLI issue. It's not. The problem you have occurs in creating an InitialContext when giving the URL of the load-balancer. Look in the stack trace - there is no ALDSP - just your code and WLS. You will get better results if you investigate it as such. For instance - if you post your question on WLS/EJB/RMI forum - the right people will see it. ( deleted remark about creating a CR)
Also - from the case description - it's not clear why you have the load-balancer there. It sounds like the ejb is hosted on the same machine as the client (it mentions that it works fine if you use localhost instead of the load-balancer ... maybe that was just something you tried). Also the WLS EJB stubs do load-balancing (and fail-over, too) so again I'm not sure of the purpose of the hardware load-balancer (if you give a good reason and it all makes sense, it's easier to diagnose).
Also posted on the case is a forums.bea.com posting that says you need to set the ejb server's "external server address" - the ejb stubs report the address that the clients should use for calling them - normally it is their own address - but if you have a load-balancer in between - they should be using the address of the load-balancer.
Also posted on the case is a reference to a CR about problems using a load-balancer when the servers have different port numbers. I didn't read the details on that.
Please escalate your case with customer support.
- MIke
Edited by: mikereiche on Nov 14, 2008 10:02 AM

OAM Webgate Ip validation problem caused by load balancer...

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