On WLC 'one-to-many' means one VLAN mapped to multiple SSIDs possible?

Does the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller Architecture includes this feature (configuration possibility)?

Thanks all for the provided infos. We have now the same requirements for two customers -> One-to-Many (One VLAN mapped to multiple SSIDs).
Can anybody who has realised such a set up provide some more details how to proceed?
The link from David describes the other way around, several VLANs mapped to one SSID. By the way, we where able to implement this, but it is only supported in centralized mode, local mode (Flex Connect it doesn't work).
For any advise how to proceed for "One VLAN mapped to multiple SSIDs" would be very appreciated.
Thanks Erich

Similar Messages

Unidirectional one-to-many with join table

According to http://docs.jboss.org/hibernate/orm/3.5/reference/en-US/html/associations.html#assoc-unidirectional-12m "A unidirectional one-to-many association on a foreign key is an unusual case, and is not recommended", instead they recommend using a join table, e.g.
create table Person ( personId bigint not null primary key )
create table PersonAddress ( personId not null, addressId bigint not null primary key )
create table Address ( addressId bigint not null primary key )
However if doing this, when using SQLDeveloper the Address table does not appear as a child table of Person, which it should be as a unidirectional one-to-many meaning that I can't create a cache group for Person and subsequently Person.
Is this something that can be worked around as I'm using a legacy schema created from Hibernate/JPA and the implications of changing are quite substantial?
Thanks

Hi Gennady,
Apologies but my question was not clear enough. The schema structure that I have inherited is as follows:
CREATE TABLE T_PERSON ( PERSONID NUMBER PRIMARY KEY, PERSONFIRSTNAME VARCHAR2(20), PERSONLASTNAME VARCHAR2(20) );
CREATE TABLE T_PERSONADDRESS (PERSONID NUMBER NOT NULL, ADDRESSID NUMBER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY );
CREATE TABLE T_ADDRESS ( ADDRESSID NUMBER PRIMARY KEY, ADDRESSTEXT VARCHAR2(200) );
ALTER TABLE T_PERSONADDRESS ADD CONSTRAINT FK_PERSON_ADDR_PERSON_ID FOREIGN KEY (PERSONID) REFERENCES T_PERSON(PERSONID);
ALTER TABLE T_PERSONADDRESS ADD CONSTRAINT FK_PERSON_ADDR_ADDR_ID FOREIGN KEY (ADDRESSID) REFERENCES T_ADDRESS(ADDRESSID);This is implementing a unidirectional one-to-many relationship between T_PERSON and T_ADDRESS according to the Hibernate and JPA recommendation. As far as I can see most schema designers would do this using by adding a column "PERSON_ID" (and associated FK) on the T_ADDRESS table and therefore not needing the T_PERSONADDRESS table.
This being what it is, I would then like to create a cache-group as follows:
CREATE READONLY CACHE GROUP "CACHEGROUPADDRESSES"
AUTOREFRESH MODE INCREMENTAL INTERVAL 5 MINUTES
STATE PAUSED
FROM
"SCHEMA1"."T_PERSON" (
    "PERSONID"        NUMBER            NOT NULL,
    "PERSONFIRSTNAME" VARCHAR2(20 BYTE),
    "PERSONLASTNAME" VARCHAR2(20 BYTE),
    PRIMARY KEY("PERSONID")
"SCHEMA1"."T_ADDRESS" (
    "ADDRESSID" NUMBER NOT NULL,
    "ADDRESSTEXT" VARCHAR2(20 BYTE),
    PRIMARY KEY("ADDRESSID")
"SCHEMA1"."T_PERSONADDRESS" (
    "PERSONID" NUMBER NOT NULL,
    "ADDRESSID" NUMBER NOT NULL,
    PRIMARY KEY("ADDRESSID"),
    FOREIGN KEY("PERSONID")
      REFERENCES "SCHEMA1"."T_PERSON"("PERSONID"),
    FOREIGN KEY("ADDRESSID")
      REFERENCES "SCHEMA1"."T_ADDRESS"("ADDRESSID")
)This however gives me the error "TT8222: Multiple parent tables found" because TimesTen has failed to identify the one-to-many-using-link-table pattern.
Without a schema re-write is there anything that I can do, alternatively will this be looked at for a future release of TimesTen?
Edited by: TrisStev on Apr 16, 2012 10:37 AM

How do I create a One to many relationship page in Dreamweaver?

How do I create a page in dreamweaver that comes up after the user logs in from the log in page that will allow the user to:
Add, change and delete in 2 tables that are in my MYSQL database that is a one to many relationship
One thing that is confusing is how the foreign key that links to the one side of the relationship is created in the many side without the user inputting the foreign key each time adding information to the many side table.
I am creating this in Dreamweaver using a MYSQL database and PHP.

>Would the following be a part of it:
>
>Outer join
Probably not. When updating/inserting/deleting from 2 tables you perform each seperately. Table updates may join two or more tables to resolve the correct row(s) but you still only update one table at a time. Procedurally you would create a transaction, update the first table, update the second table and then commit the transaction.
EDIT: Well I take back my last comment. I see that MySQL does seem to support multiple table updates. I don't use MySQL so I can't really help you on that but the MySQL manual gives pretty clear syntax.

Message mapping: one as many, function node

hi
how to use - one as many - function node in mapping. i want to mapping one value from source structure to many fields in target structure. but i dont know the exact functionality of - one as many -
kindly solve my issue
regards
mano

Hi,
Check out this example from SAP, which demos the use of the function oneAsMany:
[http://help.sap.com/saphelp_nw04/helpdata/en/38/85b142fa26c811e10000000a1550b0/frameset.htm]
Hope this helps,
Sumant.

FlexConnect Vlan Mapping

5508 WLC on 7.3. For locally switched WLANS, when configuring FlexConnect Vlan Mappings, concerning the native vlan, can this vlan also be used as a vlan mapping for an SSID or not? This would mean that the mgmt IP of the AP's, and this particular SSID would be on the same network.

Yes... If your ap and users are going to be put in the data Vlan, you can just leave the port to an access port and you don't have to setup any native val. Or Vlan mapping in the FlexConnect AP. If you decide you want to map users to the voice Vlan, then you need to trunk it.
If you want to trunk it anyways, then you can map a WLAN to the data Vlan too.
Sent from Cisco Technical Support iPhone App

Problem switching from AP-specific to Group-specific VLAN mapping

Hello.
Some days ago, I updated our 5508 WLC to software version 7.5.102.0.
With that version, it should be possible to have a VLAN mapping specific for a Flexconnect group that is set within Flexconnect Group settings.
I did that for all my Flexconnect groups and it works fine with new access point.
For existing access point, which already have an AP-specific VLAN mapping, it is not possible to switch to Group-specific.
When I mark the WLAN in Flexconnect setting of the AP and select "Remove AP specific", I get the error message "Request failed: Vlan is not enabled on this flexconnect".
I wonder what the problem could be, because for newly installed access points, it works fine. Did I miss some settings?
Regards,
Sven Lindeke

Thanks for the fast reply.
Here are the screen shots:
Settings "Flexconnect group"
Settings "Access Point"
Error message

Mapping Multiple VLANs to Multiple SSIDs as one-one in WLC 5508 via H-REAP?

Hi All,
Can anyone please show me how to map a SSID/WLAN ID to a local vlan of a LAP in WLC 5508 using H-REAP local switched? The reason of doing this is to separate Data subnet/traffic from Voice as currently all 7925 handsets using same SSID as PCs. I would like to create two VLANs on APs and map them to two SSIDs. I could not see any option in WLC5508 to do this. Also when I change the AP mode from H-REAP to local and configuring sub interface using dot1q on the interface Gi0 then unable write running-config to startup-config because I get NVRAM Verification Failed as WLC protects any local changes on any registered LAP at NVRAM.
Your help is much appreciated.

Mehdi:
I am talking about HREAP groups, not AP groups.
You can not achieve what you want if you are using the same SSID on same AP with only a WLC (same AP with same SSID is mapped to different VLANs). You may need a radius server to dynamically assign a VLAN to the clients if you are using same SSID for data and voice.
If you are using different SSIDs for voice and data, you can map each SSID to its corresponding VLAN on the remote site using the VLAN mapping option under HREAP tab in the AP config page.
You can not configure the AP from its console. Lightweight APs can only be configured from the controller. (a few exceptions are available that do not apply here) .
HTH
Amjad
Rating useful replies is more useful than saying "Thank you"

Urgent : java bean having bidirectional one to many relationship

Hi,
We have complex requirement in our application.
We need to copy java bean having bidirectional one to many relationship to another javabean having bidirectional one to many relationship..
E.g
Class Basket1 {
public String color;
pubic String type;
public List<Basket1> basketList = new ArrayList()
Class Basket2 {
public String color;
pubic String type;
public List<Basket2> basketList = new ArrayList()
We need to exact copy Basket1 to Basket2. We are in trouble to copy List of child because we do not have how many child Basket1 have of same type..
Can someone help us how we can implement such kind of complex object bidirectional one to many relationship??

I can't see anything bidirectional about these relationships. What I can see is a couple of BasketN classes that look identical so I don't know why they both exist, and they both contain lists of themselves as members, which suggests some kind of tree structure. Nothing bidirectional there. I can see tat these things can form circular object graphs but I don't see why you would want to do that.
We need to exact copy Basket1 to Basket2And I don't know what that means. Please explain.

How to insert data in a one-to-many relationship

How do you insert data into the client, my model entity beans have a one-to-many relationship.
PARENT ENTITY BEAN
PARENT-ID
PARENT-NAME
The ejbCreate(Integer parentID,String name)
CHILD ENTITY BEAN
CHILD-ID
CHILD-NAME
PARENT-ID(foreign key of PARENTID).
ejbCreate(Integer parentID,String name,String foreignparentID)
In a jsp page i collect the parent details and 3 corresponding chld details in a text box.
Can you please tell me how do i proceed from here...
ie. how to i insert data into the entity beans..
Do i pass the child as a collection, and within parents ejbCreate() method do i lookup for the childs home interface and insert one -by -one from the collection.
1. Considering the above example, can some one pls tell how the ejbCreate() mehod signatures, for the parent and child entity beans should be.
2. Pls also show some sample client code as to how to make an insertion.
3. In case you are passing a collection of child data, then in what format does one have to insert into a collection and also how does the container know how to insert the values in the child table , bcoz we are passing as a collection.
4.In case collections cannot be inserted do we need to iterate into the collection in parent's ejbCreate() method, and manually insert into the database of the childtable, thereby creating child entity beans.
Thanks for your time and support...
regards
kartik

Hi,
3. In this case of course child's ejbCreate(and postCreate) looks like
ejbCreate(Integer childID,String name,ParentLocal parent) {
setId(Id);
setName(name);
ejbPostCreate(Integer childID,String name,ParentLocal parent) {
setParent(parent);
Here you don't need IDs, but it happens only using Locals, not Remotes, if I'm not wrong. Container does it itself.
1. Of course, if you have parent.getChildren() and parent.setChildren() then you don't need any loops, but it should be done anyway in postCreate, because in ejbCreate there no parent exists yet.
Once more 3: example - I'm using JBoss 3.2.5 as EJB container. It has tomcat inside and EJB and JSP+Struts use the same jvm. It means for me that I don't need to use remote interfaces, just locals. And in this case I can implement ejb-relations. So, a have the abstract method parent.getChildren() which returns Collection of ChildLocal - s and method parent.setChildren(Collection childrenLocals) which creates/modifies children by itself.
I have not used remotes for a long time, but as I remember it was not possible to implement ejb-relations using remotes.
regards,
Gio

How just return one row of a one to many join..

So I have a one to many join where the SMOPERATOR table has data I need however it has a couple of rows that match the JOIN condition in there. I just need to return one row. I think this can be accomplished with a subquery in the join however have not been able to come up with the right syntax to do so.
So:
SELECT "NUMBER" as danumber,
NAME,
SMINCREQ.ASSIGNMENT,
SMOPERATOR.PRIMARY_ASSIGNMENT_GROUP,
SMOPERATOR.WDMANAGERNAME,
SMINCREQ.owner_manager_name,
SMINCREQ.subcategory, TO_DATE('01-'||TO_CHAR(open_time,'MM-YYYY'),'DD-MM-YYYY')MONTHSORT,
(CASE WHEN bc_request='f' THEN 'IAIO'
WHEN (bc_request='t' and substr(assignment,1,3)<>'MTS') THEN 'RARO'
WHEN (bc_request='t' and substr(assignment,1,3)='MTS') THEN 'M'
ELSE 'U' end) as type
from SMINCREQ
left outer join SMOPERATOR on SMINCREQ.assignment=SMOPERATOR.primary_assignment_group
WHERE SMINCREQ.owner_manager_name=:P170_SELECTION and SMOPERATOR.wdmanagername=:P170_SELECTION
AND open_time BETWEEN to_date(:P170_SDATEB,'DD-MON-YYYY') AND to_date(:P170_EDATEB,'DD-MON-YYYY')
AND
(bc_request='f' and subcategory='ACTIVATION' and related_record<>'t')
OR
(bc_request='f' and subcategory<>'ACTIVATION')
OR
(bc_request='t' and substr(assignment,1,3)<>'MTS')
order by OPEN_TIMe

Hi,
This sounds like a Top-N Query , where you pick N items (N=1 in this case) off the top of an orderded list. I think you want a separate ordered list for each assignment; the analytic ROW_NUMBER function does that easily.
Since you didn't post CREATE TABLE and INSERT statements for your sample data, I'll use tables from the scott schema to show how this is done.
Say you have a query like this:
SELECT       d.dname
,       e.empno, e.ename, e.job, e.sal
FROM       scott.dept d
JOIN       scott.emp   e ON   d.deptno = e.deptno
ORDER BY dname
;which produces this output:
DNAME               EMPNO ENAME      JOB              SAL
ACCOUNTING           7934 MILLER     CLERK           1300
ACCOUNTING           7839 KING       PRESIDENT       5000
ACCOUNTING           7782 CLARK      MANAGER         2450
RESEARCH             7876 ADAMS      CLERK           1100
RESEARCH             7902 FORD       ANALYST         3000
RESEARCH             7566 JONES      MANAGER         2975
RESEARCH             7369 SMITH      CLERK            800
RESEARCH             7788 SCOTT      ANALYST         3000
SALES                7521 WARD       SALESMAN        1250
SALES                7844 TURNER     SALESMAN        1500
SALES                7499 ALLEN      SALESMAN        1600
SALES                7900 JAMES      CLERK            950
SALES                7698 BLAKE      MANAGER         2850
SALES                7654 MARTIN     SALESMAN        1250Now say you want to change the query so that it only returns one row per department, like this:
DNAME               EMPNO ENAME      JOB              SAL
ACCOUNTING           7782 CLARK      MANAGER         2450
RESEARCH             7876 ADAMS      CLERK           1100
SALES                7499 ALLEN      SALESMAN        1600where the empno, ename, job and sal columns on each row of output are all taken from the same row of scott.emp, though it doesn't really matter which row that is.
One way to do it is to use the analytic ROW_NUMBER function to assign a sequence of unique numbers (1, 2, 3, ...) to all the rows in each department. Since each sequence startw with 1, and the numbers are unique within a department, there will be exactly one row per departement that was assigned the numebr 1, and we''ll display that row.
Here's how to code that:
WITH     got_r_num     AS
     SELECT     d.dname
     ,     e.empno, e.ename, e.job, e.sal
     ,     ROW_NUMBER () OVER ( PARTITION BY d.dname
                               ORDER BY         e.ename
                       )         AS r_num
     FROM     scott.dept d
     JOIN     scott.emp   e ON   d.deptno = e.deptno
SELECT       dname
,       empno, ename, job, sal
FROM       got_r_num
WHERE       r_num     = 1
ORDER BY dname
;Notice that he sub-query got_r_num is almost the same as the original query; only it has one additional column, r_num, in the SELECT clause, and the sub-qeury does not have an ORDER BY clause. (Sub-queries almost never have an ORDER BY clause.)
The ROW_NUMBER function must have an ORDER BY clause. In this example, I used "ORDER BY ename", meaning that, within each department, the row with the first ename (in sort order) will get r_num=1. You can use any column, or expression, or expressions in the ORDER BY clause. You muight as well use something consistent and predictable, like ename, but if you really wanted arbitrary numbering you could use a constant in the analytic ORDER BY clause, e.g. "ORDER BY NULL".

Inheritance and One-To-Many Mapping Issue

Are there any known issues with TopLink 4.6 mapping a one-to-many relationship where the classes in the list span more than 2 levels deep in the inheritance chain? We seem to notice that TopLink creates the class that is 2 levels deep before the owning class.

Sorry for the delayed response to your post. I'm not sure I follow what you mean by "owning class". You have a 1-M mapping where the M has inheritance. Are you mapping to the root of the inhertance hierarchy, or to a leaf class? I.e., do you have a 1-M "Company - Employee" or a 1-M "Company - SalariedEmployee". In this example, what would you call the "owning class"?
- Don

Many to One Mapping issue

Hi Experts,
I am currently facing issue with many to one mapping . I have a source schema called revenue having Profit and Profit GST which is looping multiple times. I need to copy the name,value and GST value for each type into the destination schema.
i am using Looping funtiod to create item profit records and than copying name and value from source to destination but the problem statement is that i am unable to map the GST value
Thanks
Abhishek

could you post the schema definition please
well why i am asking is, in General matching the records will be based on common node values in corresponding records.
Assume you have 2 records of Profit and 2 records of ProfitGST in the source message like below, you cannot match the records unless you have some value common in both the records. i mean there should be some common node or attribute value that exits in
both records.
assume the following sample with 2 records each
<ns0:Revenue xmlns:ns0="http://TestSample">
<ns0:profit availabilityIncentivePayment="342" increasedCapacityCharge ="121" increasedCapacaityPayment="231" />
<ns0:profit availabilityIncentivePayment="100" increasedCapacityCharge ="110" increasedCapacaityPayment="120" />
<ns0:profitGST availabilityIncentivePayment="55" increasedCapacityCharge ="21" increasedCapacaityPayment="23"/>
<ns0:profitGST availabilityIncentivePayment="150" increasedCapacityCharge ="160" increasedCapacaityPayment="170"/>
</ns0:Revenue>
if you observe the above sample instance, it does have 2 records each, but Profit record's nodes values
are no where common with ProftGST record's node values.
And for every Profit record, you want to pick corresponding GST value from ProfitGST record. However, since you don't have atleast one common node/attribute value here, you will not find a way to relate corresponding records. Means while mapping the first
record of Profit, it cannot decide which record's nodes values in the ProftGST should pick to match as there are 2 records of ProfitGSt and with no relation with Profit Records.
if the requirement is such that the records should be matched by the order(index) irrespective
or the values in them, then that can be achieved easily with postion() function in the for loop. just try to use code some thing like below sample xslt script like below, apply the proper name spaces and put full names as applicable in your scirpt, mould
it as per your need
<ns0:Root>
<xsl:for-each select="Profit">
<Profit>
<xsl:if test="@availabilityIncentivePayment">
<name>
name>availabilityIncentivePayment</name>
</name>
</xsl:if>
<xsl:if test="@increasedCapacityCharge">
<Value>
<xsl:value-of select="@increasedCapacityCharge" />
</Value>
</xsl:if>
<xsl:if test="../profitGST/@availabilityIncentivePayment">
<ProfitGSt>
<xsl:value-of select="../profitGST/@availabilityIncentivePayment[position()]" />
</ProfitGSt>
</xsl:if>
</Profit>
</xsl:for-each>
</ns0:Root>
Please mark the post as answer if this answers your question. If this post is helpful, please vote as helpful by clicking the upward arrow mark next to my reply.

Help with multi-table mapping for one-to-many object inheritance

Hi,
I have posted on here before regarding this (Toplink mapping for one-to-many object inheritance but I am still having problems mapping my object model to my schema.
Object model
The Person and Organisation objects contain base information and have the primary keys person_id and organisation_id. It is important that there is no duplication of person and organisation records, no matter how many times they are saved in different roles.
There are two types of licenceholder in the problem domain, and the ILicenceHolder interface defines information and methods that are common to both. The PersonalLicenceHolder object represents one of these types of licenceholder, and is always a person, so this class extends Person and implements ILicenceHolder.
The additional information and methods that are required by the second type of licenceholder are defined in the interface IPremisesLicenceHolder, which extends ILicenceHolder. Premises licence holders can either be people or organisations, so I have two objects to represent these - PremisesLicenceHolderPerson which implements IPremisesLicenceHolder and extends Person, and PremisesLicenceHolderOrganisation which implements IPremisesLicenceHolder and extends Organisation.
The model is further complicated by the fact that any single Person may be both a PersonalLicenceHolder and a PremisesLicenceHolderPerson, and may be so several times over. In this case, the same basic Person information needs to be linked to several different sets of licenceholder information. In the same way, any single Organisation may be a PremisesLicenceHolderOrganisation several times over.
Sorry this is complicated!
Schema
I have Person and Organisation tables containing the basic information with the primary keys person_id and organisation_id.
I have tried to follow Donald Smith's advice and have created a Role table to record the specialised information for the different types of licence holder. I want the foreign keys in this table to be licenceholder_id and licence_id. Licenceholder_id will reference either organisation_id or person_id, and licence_id will reference the primary key of the Licence table to link the licenceholder to the licence. Because I am struggling with the mapping, I have changed licenceholder_id to person_id in an attempt to get it working with the Person object before I try the Organisation.
Then, when a new licenceholder is added, if the person/organisation is already in the database, a new record is created in the Role table linking the existing person/organisation to the existing licence rather than duplicating the person/organisation information.
Mapping
I am trying to use the toplink mapping workbench to map my PremisesLicenceHolderPerson object to my schema. I have mapped all inherited attributes to superclass (Person). The primary table that the attributes are mapped to is Person, and I have used the multi-table info tab to add Roles as an additional table and map the remaining attributes to that.
I have created the references PERSON_ROLES which maps person.person_id to roles.person_id, ROLES_PERSON which maps roles.person_id to person.person_id and ROLES_LICENCE which maps roles.licence_id to licence.licence_id.
I think I have put in all the relationships, but I cannot get rid of the error message "The following primary key fields are unmapped: PERSON_ID".
Please can somebody tell me how to map this properly?
Thank you.

I'm not positive about your mappings, but it looks like the Person object should really have a 1:M or M:M mapping to the Licenceholder table. This then means that your object model should be similar, in that Person object could have many Licenses, instead of being LicenceHolders. From the looks of it, you have it set up from the LicenceHolder perspective. What could be done instead if a LicenceHolder could have a 1:1 reference to a person data object, rather than actually be a Person. This would allow the person data to be easily shared among licences.
LicenceHolder1 has an entry in the LicenceHolder table and Person table. LicenceHolder2 also has entries in these tables, but uses the same entry in the Person table- essentially it is the same person/person_ID. If both are new objects, TopLink would try to insert the same person object into the Person table twice. I'm not sure how you have gotten around or are planning to get around this problem.
Since you are using inheritance, it means that LicenceHolder needs a writable mapping to the person.person_id field- most commonly done through a direct to field mapping. From the description, it looks like roles.person_id is a foreign key in the multiple table mapping, meaning it would be set based on the value in the person.person_id field, but the person.person_id isn't actually mapped in the object. Check to make sure that the ID attribute LicenceHolder is inheriting from person hasn't been remapped in the LicenceHolder descriptor to a different field.
Best Regards,
Chris

SD Billing document many to one relationship with sales order

Hi experts,
We have a scenario where we have done collective billing for some time. So, obviously we have from sales order to billing one to many relationship. Meaning, one sales order has many billing docs.
Now, we want to merge the sales order (VBAP) data with billing data (VBRP). But, we want to take only one billing document which is appropriate.
For example, we have a sales order, corresponding that we have a billing debit memo followed by a cancellation, followed by another debit memo. In this case we have to take the third debit memo as it is the latest and the first one has a cancellation.
We will know alll this through VA02 Tcode. However, we want to derive this logic off of the above tables. We are actaully clue less as to how to pick up the right billing doc from VBRP for a sales order out of many.
Please post ur replies.
Thanks.

Hi Jain,
Thanks for the reply. The sort out mechanism may not be the one we are looking for. There may be several DIFFERENT billing docs for a single sales doc. More over, these billing docs may have been created on the same date. So, what we are looking for is a fied or information like XBLNR in VBAP with which we can for sure eliminate all other billing docs and cancellations against them, for exmaple, and pickup the right billing doc alone.
I relly appreciate your efforts.
Thanks.

One to many DataMerge

is there any way to merge data “one to many”?
like I need to create a letter to many recipients, the text body will remain same for all except the name which variable, the probem is that each recipient will have multiple policies.
Example:
Mr. XXX
Policy-------Date of issue-------Date of Maturity
XXX fund----00/00/2014----------00/00/2014
YYY fund----00/00/2014----------00/00/2014
ZZZ fund----00/00/2014----------00/00/2014
please help if this is possible.

ID's built-in Data Merge is strictly a 1:1 application. You can set up your records with fields for multiple policies and leaves some blank, though, and Data Merge can remove blank lines (which means any white space or punctuation must be part of the data). You might also be able to do this with XML.

On WLC 'one-to-many' means one VLAN mapped to multiple SSIDs possible?

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