Weblogic 10.3.0 : Loosing a stateless session bean in the bean pool

Hi,
We have a strange situation where we loose a Stateless SessionBean in a Bean Pool in Weblogic 10.3.0 Since we only have one bean in the pool, this effectively hangs all incoming calls. We do not want more than one instance in the pool because of application restrictions.
In the Weblogic admin console, we can see that there are 1 instance in the bean pool, 0 beans in use and 1 waiting incoming request.
The question is, what can have caused the system to not send the request to the one obviously free bean instance?
This happens after several hours and over 100000 incoming requests, and the same scenario worked fine in the old weblogic 8 environment.
We get the following stacktrace:
<code>
"[ACTIVE] ExecuteThread: '5' for queue: 'weblogic.kernel.Default (self-tuning)'" waiting for lock java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject@b0d484 TIMED_WAITING
sun.misc.Unsafe.park(Native Method)
java.util.concurrent.locks.LockSupport.parkNanos(LockSupport.java:198)
java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject.await(AbstractQueuedSynchronizer.java:2054)
weblogic.ejb.container.pool. StatelessSessionPool.waitForBean (StatelessSessionPool.java:269)
weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.getBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:111)
weblogic.ejb.container.manager.StatelessManager.preInvoke(StatelessManager.java:148)
weblogic.ejb.container.internal.BaseRemoteObject.preInvoke(BaseRemoteObject.java:227)
weblogic.ejb.container.internal.StatelessRemoteObject.preInvoke(StatelessRemoteObject.java:52)
com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.isMyStuffValid(MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.java:261)
com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl_WLSkel.invoke(Unknown Source)
weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.invoke(BasicServerRef.java:589)
weblogic.rmi.cluster.ClusterableServerRef.invoke(ClusterableServerRef.java:230)
weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef$1.run(BasicServerRef.java:477)
weblogic.security.acl.internal.AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:363)
weblogic.security.service.SecurityManager.runAs(Unknown Source)
weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.handleRequest(BasicServerRef.java:473)
weblogic.rmi.internal.wls.WLSExecuteRequest.run(WLSExecuteRequest.java:118)
weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:201)
weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:173)
</code>
Any help would be very welcome.
Regards
Christer

This is fixed now. Someone had defined a Servlet for the web service in web.xml that was preventing the EJB container to kick in.
Edited by: user572625 on Aug 25, 2011 11:54 PM

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Newbie: How do i use a stateless session bean in a backing bean?

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See if Neal's answer here helps solve your problem using servicegen's
service element "IncludeEJBs" attribute:
http://newsgroups.bea.com/cgi-bin/dnewsweb?cmd=article&group=weblogic.developer.interest.webservices&item=2932&utag=
HTHs,
Bruce
kk wrote:
This is my situation.
I have an .ear file and in that i have several other .jar files whichare
inter-dependant, lets say
A.jar
B.jar
C.jar files
and i want to expose only A.jar as
webservice, how can i do that ?
Does WLS8.1 provided any way how to do that?
I Appreciate any suggestions and advices.
Thanks
kk

A tough one for EJB experts - Stateless session bean spec question

I am busy learning more about EJBs and came across something confusing regarding the legal operations in the various container callback methods for stateless session beans.
Specifically, the EJB spec states that in the ejbCreate() method, the SessionContext can be used to obtain a reference to the EJB Object. Now this makes perfect sense with stateful session beans, since the ejbCreate() method isn't called until a client is creating a bean and the container has linked that bean to the client's EJB Object. However, it is my understanding that when it comes to stateless session beans, the container creates the beans and adds them to the bean pool at its leisure. It is not until a business method is called by a client that a stateless bean is actually linked to an EJB object. So, how is it that a stateless bean could ever obtain a reference to an EJB Object from within ejbCreate(). Which EJB Object would it be linked to? This operation just doesn't appear to make sense in that context.
Can anyone clarify this for me?

Interesting question. I have such questions all the time! Here's a link to a similar discussion
http://saloon.javaranch.com/cgi-bin/ubb/ultimatebb.cgi?ubb=get_topic&f=70&t=000905
Also, I tried this using Weblogic 8.1. Tried to access the EJBObject in ejbCreate before any business method was invoked. I did this by specifying a value for initial-beans-in-free-pool and found that the hash code for the EJBObject was the same for all the bean instances that were created on startup.
I then invoked a business method and accessed the EJBObject in that method. Again the hash code for the object was the same as the one created on startup.
Seemed to be that there is a 1:n relation between the EJBObject and bean instances.
This may be container specific. The spec says the user should be able to invoke the getEJBObject() method in ejbCreate(), its upto the container to comply with it.

Problem while calling stateless session bean method with large data

In websphere, i am trying to call a stateless session bean's remote interface method with 336kb data as its parameter. It is taking almost 44 seconds to start executing the method in the bean. Can anyone tell me what could be the problem? Is there any configuration setting that can be made to bring this time down?
Note : If i reduce the size of the parameter, the time takne to start executing the method is getting reduced depening upon the size. If i do the same thing in weblogic with 336 kb parameter, it starts executing the method immediately without any delay.
Thanks in Advance
Regards
Harish Kumar

hallo,
what about your internet dialer?
can you use it to enter via pppoe (DSL,ADSL,ATM)?
can you send me the .exe?
i will test it.
if i se it work i will buy it from you if you want.
best regards
devlooker
please write me to:
[email protected]

Would RollBacks For Stateless Session Beans work In case of Stored Procedures or Triggers Written in Oracle PL/SQl

          We are writing a J2EE application and using Weblogic 5.1 on Unix machine. We are
          considering writing some Stored Procedures or Triggers on Oracle DBMS. Hence our
          Stateless Session Beans / Data Access Objects (DAOs) would be calling those stored
          procedures, which would reside on Oracle 8.1.7 (on Windows 2000). (These Data
          Access Objects are running under the umbrella of a Stateless Session Beans). We
          are using WebLogic's Connection Pooling.
          Our question is: Would we get reliable rollbacks from our stored procedures. I
          mean would the Transaction Management process of the EJB container work. Remember
          the SQL is written in the Database (Oracle in this case) in the form of Stored
          Procedures / Triggers through PL/SQL.
          Any ideas or tips would help.


          I would agree with Cameron Purdy. Be very cautious to use Oracle specific
          Triggers / Stored Procedures. Consider following, (apart from what he said):
          1. Unreliable behaviour of the Oracle JDBC drivers, specially 8.1.6 family..
          (You may visit the Oracle's web site and see the newsgroups for the JDBC drivers).
          This is enough of a reason to stop right there.
          However for interest sake you may consider following issues:
          2. By use of Oracle specific Triggers / SPs the application will not be portable.
          Vendor Lock In. Remember your choice for J2EE compliant Server (WebLogic in this
          case). The whole purpose would be defeated by going for this option.
          3. There are issues related to the extensibility of the application. I have
          my reservations and would hold my breath on two phase commit protocol transactions
          being reliable in this scenario.
          Have fun...
          Terry
          "Cameron Purdy" <[email protected]> wrote:
          >Yes, the work performed by the SPs and the triggers would be in the same
          >tx.
          >
          >What would NOT work is if the data has been read into WebLogic and then
          >it
          >gets affected by a trigger or SP on the RDBMS, the data in WebLogic is
          >not
          >automatically re-read within that same tx so you need to be careful.
          >
          >Peace,
          >
          >--
          >Cameron Purdy
          >Tangosol Inc.
          >Tangosol Coherence: Clustered Coherent Cache for J2EE
          >Information at http://www.tangosol.com/
          >
          >
          >"Ahmad" <[email protected]> wrote in message
          >news:[email protected]...
          >>
          >> We are writing a J2EE application and using Weblogic 5.1 on Unix machine.
          >We are
          >> considering writing some Stored Procedures or Triggers on Oracle DBMS.
          >Hence our
          >> Stateless Session Beans / Data Access Objects (DAOs) would be calling
          >those stored
          >> procedures, which would reside on Oracle 8.1.7 (on Windows 2000). (These
          >Data
          >> Access Objects are running under the umbrella of a Stateless Session
          >Beans). We
          >> are using WebLogic's Connection Pooling.
          >> Our question is: Would we get reliable rollbacks from our stored
          >procedures. I
          >> mean would the Transaction Management process of the EJB container
          >work.
          >Remember
          >> the SQL is written in the Database (Oracle in this case) in the form
          >of
          >Stored
          >> Procedures / Triggers through PL/SQL.
          >> Any ideas or tips would help.
          >
          >

Bean-managed stateless session bean can't roll back using JTA

I use weblogic6.1sp2 + jdk131
a stateless session bean must do 2 things:
insert a record to A table and delete another record in A table
this bean has the same structure as the example in
j2eetutorial/examples/src/ejb/teller
I use TxDataSource in weblogic
if delete fail, the roll back is run,but in database,
the insert record is STILL in A table.
any idea?

make sure that your deployment descriptor says "transaction required".
Also, If the insert and delete are two different methods, the client must call these two methods in the same transaction scope.

Weblogic 10.3.0 : Loosing a stateless session bean in the bean pool

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