Aggregate and variable one-to-one

Hi,
I would like to create a variable one-to-one mapping in my aggregate target descriptor, but when I want to set up the query key associations, the foreign key field is disabled. Is this not possible, or am I missing something?
Regards,
Katarina

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Difference between Temp table and Variable table and which one is better performance wise?

Hello,
Anyone could you explain What is difference between Temp Table (#, ##) and Variable table (DECLARE @V TABLE (EMP_ID INT)) ?
Which one is recommended to use for better performance?
also Is it possible to create CLUSTER and NONCLUSTER Index on Variable table?
In my case: 1-2 days transactional data are more than 3-4 Millions. I tried using both # and table variable and found table variable is faster.
Is that Table variable using Memory or Disk space?
Thanks Shiven:) If Answer is Helpful, Please Vote

Check following link to see differences b/w TempTable & TableVariable: http://sqlwithmanoj.com/2010/05/15/temporary-tables-vs-table-variables/
TempTables & TableVariables both use memory & tempDB in similar manner, check this blog post: http://sqlwithmanoj.com/2010/07/20/table-variables-are-not-stored-in-memory-but-in-tempdb/
Performance wise if you are dealing with millions of records then TempTable is ideal, as you can create explicit indexes on top of them. But if there are less records then TableVariables are good suited.
On Tables Variable explicit index are not allowed, if you define a PK column, then a Clustered Index will be created automatically.
But it also depends upon specific scenarios you are dealing with , can you share it?
~manoj | email: http://scr.im/m22g
http://sqlwithmanoj.wordpress.com
MCCA 2011 | My FB Page

If I get a user to enter their name as a variable and I am linking one movie to another using a button, is there a way to carry the user name forward into the second movie?

If I get a user to enter their name as a variable and I am linking one movie to another using a button, is there a way to carry the user name forward into the second movie?

Hi there
See if the link below helps
Click here
Cheers... Rick
Helpful and Handy Links
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Script to open SVGs in a folder and save them to one multipage PDF

Hi.
I'm using Illustrator for work and I love it, I never needed scripts yet.
Now I have couple houndred svgs coming in per day,
I would like to have a script that opens every svg one by one in the selected directory and add them to a pdf
as pages of the same size and than save it.
Is this possible? How many files I could put in 1 pdf this way?
I'm using Illustrator CS5 on Win7 x64.
Thanks in advance.
Istvan

I think there is a 100 file limit on artboards ( not tested ) but the size would also affect that… You can't straight place *.svg but you can make group from them would that do you?
#target Illustrator
function filesToArtboards() {
          // My function variables…
          var doc, fileList, i, inFolder, mm, svgFile;
          // Get the user to select a folder
          inFolder = Folder.selectDialog( 'Please choose your Folder of files to place…' );
          // Check they ain't cancelled
          if ( inFolder != null ) {
                    // Gets just the SVG files…
                    fileList = inFolder.getFiles( /\.svg$/i );
                    // Make sure it has AI files in it…
                    if ( fileList.length > 0 ) {
                              mm = 2.83464567 // Metric MM converter…
                              // Set the script to work with artboard rulers
                              app.coordinateSystem =
                              CoordinateSystem.ARTBOARDCOORDINATESYSTEM;
                              // Add new multi-page document
                              doc = app.documents.add(
                                         DocumentColorSpace.RGB,
                                         width = 148.5*mm,
                                         height = 210*mm,
                                         numArtboards = fileList.length, // The number of SVG files
                                         DocumentArtboardLayout.GridByCol,
                                         artboardSpacing = 20*mm,
                                         artboardRowsOrCols = Math.round( Math.sqrt( fileList.length ) )
                              // Loop thru the counter
                              for ( i = 0; i < fileList.length; i++ ) {
                                        // Set the active artboard rulers based on this
                                        doc.artboards.setActiveArtboardIndex( i );
                                        // Create group from SVG
                                        svgFile = doc.groupItems.createFromFile( fileList[i] );
                                        // Move relative to this artboards rulers
                                        // Top Left
                                        sgvFile.position = [ 0, 0 ];
filesToArtboards();

How to use bind variable value of one VO as initial value for other VO row?

JDeveloper 10.1.3.3, ADF Faces, ADF BC
Hi,
I have two View Objects: one read only with several bound variables and another editable entity based. Correspondingly there are two ADF Faces pages: first contains search form based on the read-only VO and second create form based on the editable VO. The search form has several hidden fields for some of bound variables because they aren't edited directly by user. These fields are updated with PPR when user selects other search criteria from LOV.
There is a command button in the first page that navigates to the second form. Is there any way to transfer values of bound variables from the first VO to the second VO as initial values of the new row?
I tried to set custom controller for the second page and retrieve search criteria values from request parameter map but values from hidden fields are missing. I think because that these fields are updated by PPR. Of course I can add custom action method to the navigation button and in the method put these values to request parameter map but I hope there is better solution.
Thanks,
Marius

To summarize, given a bind variable value for one VO, on creating a row in a second VO, for 1 of the attributes of the second VO, you want to use the first VO's bind variable value. Correct?
A potential solution ADF BC driven:
1) Ensure you have an AppModuleImpl for your AM
2) Ensure you have a ViewImpl for your 1st VO (where the bind variable will exist) - lets refer to that VO as "Alpha"
3) Ensure you have a ViewRowImpl for your 2nd VO (the one you want to default the value in) - lets refer to that VO as "Beta"
4) For your first VO "Alpha" create the bind variable (say pValue)
5) In your second VO "Beta" ViewRomImpl add following code:
@Override
protected void create(AttributeList attributeList) {
super.create(attributeList);
AppModuleImpl am = (AppModuleImpl)this.getApplicationModule();
String someValue = am.getAlphaView1().getpValue();
setSecondVOAttr(someValue); // change this code to whatever your setter is for the field you want to initialize.
}Hope this helps. Let us know how you go.
Regards,
CM.

Variable sharing from one class to another??

Hi!!
Suppose two classes, one class extend from JFrame and another
from JDialog.I want to share the variable of Second one(extending JDialog) into firstone.How can I get this? please help me.

For example:
In JFrame class...
JDialog theDialog = new JDialog ...
someVariable = theDialog.getVariable();
In the JDialog class, add the getVariable method.

Variable One to One - difficult question

Hi
I am using a Variable One to One mapping but TL is not using the class indicator information to produce the correct SQL and I wonder what I am doing wrong.
I have the following simplified database design:
Users:
userId (pk)
Applications:
applicationId (pk)
ServiceProviders
serviceProviderId (pk)
applicationId (fk)
Services
serviceId (pk)
serviceProviderId (fk)
UserEntities
userId (pk, fk)
entityId (pk)
entityTypeId (pk)
The Id values for different entity types are mutually exclusive - there can be a serviceId #1 and a serviceProviderId #1.
I have several classes that implement an Entity interface (Application, ServiceProvider, Service), and a UserEntity class containing a reference to a User and an Entity.
In the descriptors for classes implementing Entity I have a one to many mapping to UserEntity, with a table reference constructed in MW, and a single source / target field pair of e.g. entityId - applicationId. In the UserEntity descriptor I have a one to one mapping to User and a variable one to one mapping to Entity. This contains a Class Indicator based on the entityTypeId field, and values for each class implementing Entity have been entered.
It seems that when I insert a new UserEntity instance, this class indicator value is used to supply a value for the entityTypeId field. When I access the userEntities collection from a User instance, the class indicator is used to instantiate the correct kind of Entity. But when I access the userEntities collection from an instance of the an Entity class like the Application class, the EntityTypeId is not specified in the SQL generated:
ServerSession(30932017)--Connection(24156236)--SELECT ENTITYID, ENTITYTYPEID, USERID FROM USERENTITIES WHERE (ENTITYID = ?)
bind => [1]
#### I would expect 'AND ENTITYTYPEID = ? ..... bind => [2]' here #####
I would expect the class indicator info to be used both ways, when determining what class to instantiate for the variable one to one, and also to make the query specific to that class when an instance is being used.
Many thanks if you can shed some light on this. Perhaps I have to use an API method as demonstrated in this post how can i map this?
James

James
Thanks for your reply.
I have a similar NullPointerException on the validateNode method. I slavishly followed your code example - hope it was right :), so will raise this with Oracle support.
public static void amendApplicationUserEntityResp(Descriptor descriptor) {
     OneToManyMapping mapping = (OneToManyMapping) descriptor.getMappingForAttributeName("responsibilitiesInherited");
     ExpressionBuilder builder = new ExpressionBuilder();
     mapping.setSelectionCriteria(
          builder.getField("USERENTITYRESPINHERITED.ENTITYID").equal(builder.getParameter("APPLICATIONS.APPLICATIONID")
          .and(builder.getField("USERENTITYRESPINHERITED.ENTITYTYPEID").equal(1)))

How to pass a variable more than one values?

How to pass a variable more than one values?

You can't.
During 1 session, 1 ODI variable can have only 1 value at a time.
If you need more than 1 value, you will have to do somethink like a loop inside your package, and refresh the variable value each time.

Variables - Sap business one

Hi I have a print layout design form designed by someone else. I would like to modify it and have noticed that it uses a variable number for one of the fields. How can i tell what the variable definition is for this variable? thankyou

Judi - a suggestion as I got burnt on this area - be VERY VERY careful when using variables in the Print Layout Designer (PLD). I walked into a customer's office and said the information she wanted could be included as part of the results with PLD by using the variables displayed in the system. A bit embarassed when the results came out funky and certainly not what she was looking for.
I did an extensive amount of research and submitted a ticket to SAP, and here is their reply (verbatim from the ticket):
"The fields in the other report that are showing results 'Text Type Field'
are harcoded or system fields and they only can be used by our
development team...
<u>Variables are generally not supported by us as they can be subject to
change in patches or upgrades. Please check Note 723783...
We do not guarentee that the displayed Variable Numbers are valid
and will print the correct information...</u>
Adding Variables can as well corrupt your Layout in General. Therefore
we do not encourage you to try to add your own Variables..."
By "displayed variable numbers", SAP Support was referring to some numbers I had copied down from the forms themselves and passed on to SAP asking why they were not as documented. But guess what - the variables did NOT print the same info in the PLD as what was displayed on the system! It turned out to be a real mess.
I am especially worried about the statement that variables can change in patches or upgrades and wonder if there will be some work to be done for when any PLD was modified?

One to One relationship between Dimensions and Fact Tables

Hi,
Not a real Discoverer question, but seeing as there is such a huge pool of talent here, I thought I'd ask anyway...
Is the concept of having a one to one join between a Dimension and a Fact Table an Acceptable Thing (tm). I'm not talking about a degenerate dimension, as the Dimension would hold additional attributes.
It's something I'm trying to get my head around and would appreciate any viewpoints.
Thanks,
Andy

Hi Andy,
There is of course no distinction in SQL between 1-1 and 1-n joins, but in your database design you would avoid denormalizing data into a dimension table if it was only ever used once.
From a Discoverer perspective setting the join to 1-1 controls how aggregate queries are constructed. Normally, if you have a master-detail 1-n relationship and you aggregate items in both tables then you will get an incorrect result for the master table because the number of rows are multipled by the n detail records. Similarily if you have 2 detail tables in the query and you aggregate items in a detail table you will get incorrect results. Discoverer recognises these situations and raises an error.
Setting the join as 1-1 tells Discoverer that it will get the correct results in these situations and therefore no error is raised. So it is perfectly acceptable to set the joins as 1-1 as long as you know the implications.
Hope that helps,
Rod West

Variable one to one mapping question

I'm trying to create a variable one to one mapping using an interface with two implementing classes. The problem that I have is that I have two different values in the class indicator column that I wish to map to the same class. Mapping workbench doesn't let me do this. The MW documentation discusses using unique primary keys by leaving the class indicator blank. However, i'm using 9.0.4.8 and this doesn't appear to work as I get exceptions at runtime.
Is there anything along the lines of the inheritance classextraction method for interfaces? Any suggestions for how to go about this?
Thanks in advance,
Jonathan

Hi Jonathan,
This use case is not supported in the Workbench. You will have to define an After Load Method in the workbench and add the indicator->class mappings in code. I am not positive on how this is handled in the runtime. Which indicator would be used when writing, maybe only supported for read-only mappings, or possibly not supported at all? Someone from the runtime team can respond about this.
Karen

Variable one to one

Hi,
1) Is it possible to have the class indicator in a variable one to one mapping set to a function call, or a pl/sql expression instead of a field?
2) I am trying to use the workbench to create a variable one to one but the reference descriptor dropdown does not show anything.
Thanks!
Calin

1 - You could use custom SQL or stored procedures in your queries to read the source object of the variable 1-1 and potentially provide the indicator value from a function, but this would be very complex. You would probably be better off having an indicator field, or not using an indicator (it is optional). Perhaps some more information on what you are trying to do?
2 - A variable 1-1 mapping is a 1-1 relationship from the source descriptor to one of several different classes that share a common interface. You must have a common interface between the target classes and define an interface descriptor for the interface in the Mapping Workbench.

Variable One-to-one mapping

i am working on variable one-to-one mapping. i am unable to figure out how to work on it. can anybody provide an example on how to implement it from java and toplink perspectives.

Thank you. I have gone through the links. i used class indicator field method. I am still getting error saying
"Exception Description: Missing descriptor for [class java.lang.String]. Verify that the descriptor has been properly registered with the Session."
My code and table structure is as below.
Interface - VariableOneToOne
Implementation classes: Phone and Email
Table Structure:
Employee Table:
ID (PK)
Name
TYPE (mapped as variable one-to-one)
C_ID(FK to eid and pid)
Phone Table:
pid (PK)
phnumber
Email Table:
eid (PK)
emailaddress
"TYPE" is of string type. "Phone" or "Email" is sent from this attribute. Toplink instantiates the respective class from the configurations specified in the variable one-to-one mapping of "TYPE" attribute in workbench.
The classes and interface code is as below:
Inteface:
package com.cts;
public interface VariableOneToOne {
     public int getId();
     public void setId(int id);
Employee Class:
package com.cts;
public class Employee2{
     protected int id;
     protected String name;
     protected String type;
     protected VariableOneToOne phone;
     protected VariableOneToOne email;
     public Employee2()
          this.id = 0;
          this.name = null;
          this.type = null;
          this.phone = null;
          this.email = null;
     public int getId() {
          return id;
     public void setId(int id) {
          this.id = id;
     public String getName() {
          return name;
     public void setName(String name) {
          this.name = name;
     public String getType() {
          return type;
     public VariableOneToOne getEmail() {
          return email;
     public void setEmail(VariableOneToOne email) {
          this.email = email;
     public VariableOneToOne getPhone() {
          return phone;
     public void setPhone(VariableOneToOne phone) {
          this.phone = phone;
     public void setType(String type) {
          this.type = type;
Email Class:
package com.cts;
public class Email2 implements VariableOneToOne {
     protected int id;
     protected String email;
     public Email2() {
          this.id = 0;
          this.email = null;
     public String getEmail() {
          return email;
     public void setEmail(String email) {
          this.email = email;
     public int getId() {
          return id;
     public void setId(int id) {
          this.id = id;
Phone Class:
package com.cts;
public class Phone2 implements VariableOneToOne {
     protected int id;
     protected String phone;
     public Phone2()
          this.id = 0;
          this.phone = null;
     public int getId() {
          return id;
     public void setId(int id) {
          this.id = id;
     public String getPhone() {
          return phone;
     public void setPhone(String phone) {
          this.phone = phone;
Please advice on resolving the issue.
Thanks in advance.

Aggregate with a one-to-one relationship

Is there a way for mapping a one-to-one relationship between an aggregate and a regular descriptor according to the class the aggregate is aggregated to?
For example Class A contains Class B as an aggregate. Class B is associated to Class C in a one-to-one relationship. Class A' may also use the same aggregation.
How to specify the table reference so that it is respectively a Table C to Table A database relationship and a Table C to Table A' relationship.
I hope this is clear!?
Please advice,
Chris

If I understand you have a shared aggregate B from A and A' that has a 1-1 relationship to C.
To map this in the Mapping Workbench, first map A, A'. Then map the aggregate B, in mapping its 1-1 to C you should be able to choose any of the foreign keys references in A (or the first descriptor that mapped to the aggregate). You then go into the A and A' aggregate mappings and map the foreign key field in the aggregate to the foreign key field in the source descriptor's table.
If defining the mappings in code you can choose to map the aggregate to either table, or the commonly named fields. If the field names in the source descriptor's table differ, then you provide a field-name translation in the aggregate mapping.

Yesterday, as today's deadline for filing tax returns approached, I was paralyzed by the inability to create new IRS PDF forms and to retrieve archived ones from a year ago. My computer went crazy. 24 hours later, I am still paralyzed. Can you help?

My computer went crazy yesterday on two occasions involving PDF documents. One dealt with attachments to an email from a bona fide corporation. The other dealt with IRS PDF forms & schedules needed for today's submission.
As both dealt with PDF and had nothing else in common, I suspected my PC had a virus. When I asked a local store technician, he agreed. I turned to Norton, which protects my PC from viruses, and after a few hours of really thorough searching, the computer was found to have no viruses.
Before describing what I call "crazy" computer behavior, you need to know that I have long had IE8 as my default browser but a few weeks ago switched to Mozilla Firefox because IE8 had beome incompatible with some websites from which I get information.
When I received the email from AT&T email service and clicked the first of four icons representing attachments, there was figuratively an explosion on my monitor: a series of new tabs, each called New Tab, burst onto the monitor--but no text or picture. The new tabs appeared faster than I coul kill them. I finally decided just to shut down the computer, hoping they would not reappear when I restarted. I was wrong. After 2 repeats, I decided to forget about the attachments and asked the sender to send them to me by regular mail.
That was no solution for my IRS PDFs. I wanted to complete filling in the various forms and schedules that I had begun months ago so that I could mail them today to the IRS (without having to copy them all in ink). When I tried to open the first one, BOOM. The same thing happened: the blizzard of New Tabs atop blank pages; my IRS form or schedule did not show up. Did the same shutdown/restart routine with the same results.
When I looked at the list of current forms that had to be completed, I noticed something very strange: the icons that began the listing of the documents' names were replaced one by one by Mozilla icons. When I moused over them, they said Firefox HTML. Why?
Starting the day today, I had the same experience. What's more, when I started to retrieve 2012 IRS PDFs from a year ago, the same New Tab tabs appeared and had to be killed, and Mozilla icons replaced whatever icon was there before.
Assuming that the problem arose with Adobe Reader's reading of the PDFs, I contacted Adobe but got no helpful phone number because PDFs are a free service and was directed to use this Forum to get help.
What do I have to do to (a) read and use PDFs in the normal way and (b) remove the Mozilla icon from those that have appeared on icon documents. If Mozilla is the source of the problem, shall I go back to IE8? (In my 80s, I want eventually to replace my old computer but for the time being I must continue using it. It will not take an IE9. Anther possible default browser would be Google Chrome, but I have unfavorable impressions of it because of its intrusiveness, loading my PC with stuff I do not need.
Can you help?

The problem is absolutely not Reader. The problem is that FireFox has stepped in front of Reader and handles all the PDF stuff - wrongly in your case. FireFox is DESIGNED to take over PDF files. But it is not capable of doing IRS forms!
To start with go back to IE for these forms. When you save them to disk DO NOT DOUBLE CLICK ON THEM until this is fixed. Just open the in the normal way - start Adobe Reader and use Open from the File menu.

Aggregate and variable one-to-one

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