Calculating foreign exchange

i have to compute for x= y * foreign exchange. I can compute this by using saved assumptions or variables. But i like to use the currency conversion feature of Hyperion Planning. Can anyone give me a step by step on how can i used this feature to be able to get the value of x.
Thanks,
Hanson

Hi,
These currency conversion rules run for all accounts whichever you set Currency as data type.
Accounts are converted using different types of rates depending on their account type. Expense accounts use monthly average rates, balance sheet accounts use period ending rates. You can customize these scripts if you like.
they are created as calc scripts in essbase. You can find the script under scripts node in aas then convert that into a business rule to make it run on specific members etc.
Cheers,
Alp

Similar Messages

  • Incorrect value of Auto. Gain Loss Foreign Exchange during GR/IR clearing

    Dear Experts,
    We have activated the Material Ledger functionality.
    The Document Currency of PO, GR, and IR are in Foreign Currency.
    The postings are below:
    Loc Currency 1 = USD
    Loc Currency 3 = IDR
    Doc currency = IDR
    GR
    Dr Material               52,980,975 Doc Curr/IDR          5,340.80 Loc Curr 1/USD
      Cr  AP u2013 GRIR              -75,000,000 Doc. Curr./IDR        -7,560.45 Loc Curr 1/USD
    Dr Price Adjustment          22,019,025 Dor. Curr/IDR          2,219.65 Loc Curr 1/USD
    IR
    Dr  AP u2013 GRIR          75,000,000 Doc. Curr./IDR          7,560.45 Loc Curr 1/USD
      Cr  AP-Vendor              -75,000,000 Doc. Curr./IDR        -7,537.73 Loc Curr 1/USD
      Cr  Forex AP- Current                               0 Doc. Curr./IDR             -22.72 Loc Curr 1/USD
    GR/IR clearing
    Loc Currency 1 = USD
    Loc Currency 3 = IDR
    Doc currency = USD
    Dr  AP u2013 GRIR          7,560.45 Doc Curr./USD      75,000,000 Loc. Curr. 3/IDR
      Cr  AP u2013 GRIR              -7,560.45 Doc Curr./USD      -75,000,000 Loc. Curr.3/IDR
    Dr  Forex AP- Current            0 Doc Curr./USD     1,360,469 Loc. Curr. 3/IDR
    Cr   Forex AP- Current                 0 Doc Curr./USD     -1,360,469 Loc. Curr.3/IDR               
    The problem occured after GR/IR Clearing is performed. The system generated automatic Gain/Loss Foreign Exchange AP-Current with incorrect amount in Local Currency 3. That amount was not match with the delta exchange rate difference on the date of IR is performed and on the date of GR/IR Clearing is performed.
    Can anyone inform me what is the probable cause of this incorrect Forex AP-Current calculation? What is the calculation basis that SAP system use to calculate this automatic Forex AP-Current?
    Should you require any additional information, please let me know.
    Thank you
    Best regards,
    Frans Sunarja

    Hi
    First once we  have check the exchange rate types in OB08
    second one you are no main the gain/loss a/c  OB09 w are setting Loss/gain .
    Regards
    suresh

  • Foreign exchange gain and loss

    Short Text 
    Foreign Exch Gain / Loss to be booked to a diffr cost center 
    Long Text 
    The transaction booked with the following parameters
    Step 1:-Transaction booked trough FB60
    Foreign currency CHF @ 40/ruppee
    Expenses debited (1000-cost center)
    Vendor Credited
    Step 2:-Transaction paid through F-53
    Foreign currency CHF @ 50/ruppee paid
    Vendor Debited (Clearing the open item)
    Bank outgoing account Credited
    Foriegn exchange gain and loss Debited
    In ECC 6.00 Version:- The open item clearing inherits the CO objects
    from step one except for "Foreign exchange agin and loss line item"
    Note:
    1) In above scnerio, if foreign exchange gain and loss booked to some
    other cost center other than Step one:- Cost Center (Expenses booked).
    2) If the foreign exchange gain and loss line item booked to same cost
    center as specified in Step one:- Cost Center (Expenses booked).The
    below error does not occur.
    3) The requirement is to book different cost center for the Foreign
    exchange gain and loss line item.
    The following error occurs during FB05 transaction execution for
    transfering the line item in Bank outgoing account to Bank Main account.
    Error Details occur during FB05 transaction execution:-
    Start----
    Ex.rate diff.accts are incomplete for account 0002500062 currency CHF
    Message no. F5063
    Diagnosis
    The accounts for posting exchange rate differences could not be
    determined. For the specified G/L account and the specified
    currency
    key, the accounts are only specified incompletely. Either the
    accounts
    for the implemented exchange rate difference, the accounts for the
    valuation differences or the balance sheet adjustment account are
    missing.
    System Response
    The system cannot generate the exchange rate difference posting.
    Procedure
    By pressing ENTER, you achieve that the document is reset to a
    status
    without automatic posting. In another window, you can complete
    default
    settings for exchange rate differences and post the document
    afterwards.
    END----
    Configuration already in place:-
    1) Bank outgoing and main account "ONLY BALANCE IN LOCAL CURRENCY" is a
    ticked
    2) In OBA1 Foreign exchange gain and loss and valuation gain and loss
    GL's are defined for respective Reconciliation account.
    Regards,
    Sathya

    Hi,
    Is your problem solved, I am also facing the same issue when transffering from Incoming/Outgoing to Main Bank Account. Exchange gain/loss is being calculated by the system.
    Please share with me the solution to the above problem.
    Thanks & Regards,
    Jyoti

  • Purchase Price Variance Foreign Exchange difference

    How Purchase Price Variance Foreign Exchange difference is calculated for material consumed in product costing / material ledger

    You need to go to net price at purchase order in local currency. With quantity you'll get the purchase order total price in local currency.
    Get the standard price of material master record (which is in purchase order) on MM03 transaction on costing 2 view.
    Purchase price variance is the difference between purchase price order and material standard price.
    To get this difference in foreing currency, you´ll need to get document date of purchase order, get exchange rate at OB08 and find both prices in foreign currency; after that get same way the variance.
    Hope that helps,

  • Purchase price variance-Foreign exchange

    HI Experts,
    as per my business process
    PPV-fx means
    The Foreign Exchange rate difference between the average exchange rate of the month that the invoice is booked and the standard company xxxxx exchange rate that company xxxxx applies for actual costing and where company xxxxx bases their hedge policy on.
    for this month my ppv-fx is 30000
    i want to know how this got calculated?
    how can i see average exchange rate of the month for all the invoices and standard exchange rate for actual costing?

    Hi
    Acually the forex valuation at time one rate,
    The system calcualtion rate at end month different rate,
    so revauation for exchange rates,invoice dates and document dates.
    any clarification call me+91 9962155061
    Edited by: jyothi reddy on May 10, 2010 10:04 PM

  • Foreign Exchange accounting in TRM

    Dear Experts,
    To give you brief intro, i am a finance person and user of SAP Treasury module. my knowledge of the module is of user level and not of functional or technical level.
    i need your help on my below query.
    for foreign exchange trades (60A), what should be the right accounting practice thru TRM (1) at time of of entering into deal (2) at time of maturity of transaction and also at time of (3) pre mature or part settlement of the transactions.
    currently, i do not post any entry at time of creating 60A/102 deal.
    at time of maturity, i does cash settlement in deal, put the cancellation rate, date of cancellation in date box to generate gain / loss and post the same (only cash settlement entry) thru TBB1
    in case of part or early utilization or forward contract, i does the pre mature settlement from ftr_edit and copy paste 102 deal details in 105 and 103 deals including contract date and value date except for amount. thereafter, i settle both deals and cash settle 105 deal with cancellation rate and transaction date in date box to generate gain / loss. this gain / loss is posted thru TBB1. in this case, when i have taken early delivery, i have to add or subtract swap points in final rate to arrive at correct rate. also, i have to to cash settle 102 and all 103 deals when there's final amount settlement whether on due date or before it.
    in my case, buy sale position of two currencies are shown in cashflow tab as "not rel. for posting" and is not posting even on maturity.
    i know i have given bit lengthy details but i really wants to understand
    1. is above practice of recording fx transaction is correct?
    2. is there any better way to capture early deliveries?
    3. in case of early delivery, is it right & necessary to replicate 102 deal details in 105 and 103?
    4. what is role of TPM18 which i am not using at all in above scheme of fx set up?
    your valuable reply will be of great help to me.
    Thanking you all in advance
    Kapil     

    Hello Kapil,
    Your questions has covered most of FX process.
    I'll try to answer few of your question.
    Answer 1) The process is correct, Its based on what your company required consultant has customized the system in that fashion, As you said there is not posting even during maturity of deals, that because in customization setting is missing for posting. Incase its required please consult you consultant to make the changes in system for Flow type-(here relevant for posting is unchecked).
    Answer 2 & 3, I'm not sure why consultant has suggested to use such a lengthy process to settle early deliver deal, There might be some reason for the same. Please check,
    But the same process can also be addressed, throught FTR_edit  and settle the single deal through cash settlement.
    Also note, 103 is only used for netting which means you are trying to settle couple of deal together and that can be excluded if you have only single deal.
    Answer 4) TPM18 is used to do the valuation after the deal has been closed.Realized gains and losses  are determined according to single valuation of transactions principle. This is calculated by taking the difference between the forward rate based on the conclusion of the contract and the posted rate on value date.
    Let me know in case you need more information.
    Regards,
    Jaiin

  • F-44 - Foreign Exchange Issue

    Hi All,
    When I clear one invoice say 100 USD with payment of 100 USD in f-44, then exchange rate difference line item is getting created and the same is reflecting in FBL1N but when I make partial payment say 75 USD, exchange rate difference line item is getting created but the same is not reflecting in FBL1N.
    Full Payment
    100 USD Invoice ( @ 50 INR ) 5000
    100 USD Payment ( @ 48 INR ) 4800
    Exchange Gain A/c Rs. 200/- ( this line item is created in FBL1N and the same is posted in GL a/c )
    Partial Payment
    100 USD Payment ( @ 48 INR ) 4800
    75 USD Invoice ( @ 50 INR ) 3750
    Exchange Gain A/c Rs. 150/- ( this line item is not created in FBL1N  but the same amount is posted in GL a/c )
    Just need to clarify if the above examples with posting are correct.
    Thanks in advance....
    Anish

    Hi,
    Foreign Exchange Gain or /Loss will be caliculated when there are cleared itemsu2026. So when you are making partial payment then the exchange rate gain or loss will not be calculated as no items are been cleared.
    Instead use residual payment to view exchage rate diff. postings, in case of partial payment when you make the final payment and when the line items are cleared then you can see the exchange rate gain/loss caliculated.
    Regards

  • Valuation of foreign exchange forward with NPV split for interest vs FX impact?

    Hello,
    I have the following business requirement regarding the accounting treatment of the valuation of a foreign exchange forward deal :
    1. during the lifetime of the deal
    step1. valuation
              the deal should valued at its NPV using the swap points curve (table AT15) => that gives the "VALUE"
         BUT
    step 2. the posting of the deal's value should be SPLIT into TWO components
                   a) component 1 = linearly amortized swap points since deal date +2   until valuation date     => to be classified to interest result
                   b) component 2 =  VALUE - component 1                                                                                => to be classified to unrealized fx result
    Comment.
    So, in fact it is some hybrid combination of the two SAP standard valuation methods
                   a) spot/spot + swap accrual + swap valuation (but NO NPV calculation) 
                   b) NPV calculation (without any split in components)
    2. at maturity
         realized fx result :     calculation based on deal spot rate versus spot rate at maturity
         interest result :          calculation based on deal spot rate vs deal forward rate
    Don't see how this "mixted behavior" can be achieved by customizing the valuation process.
    Please help.
    Best regards,
    Carl

    Hi Carl,
    In order to use the 2step valuation during the lifetime of forex contracts, you need to combine 2 valuation steps in your Position Management Procedure:
    1. step 6 Rate valuation for forward exchange transactions: spot-spot
    2. step 4 Security valuation
    Additonally, if the NPV should be calculated based on swap points from AT15, you need to apply BAdI JBA_SFGDT that is able to adjust TPM60 or/and reports in MRA if needed. See SAP note 0000940562 for details (and also 1941874 for extrapolation issues).
    As far as i know, at maturity you can only have 1flow of gain/loss by using standard SAP Solution.
    Best regards,
    Piotr

  • Convert dollars in a spreadsheet to a foreign exchange rate

    Is it possible to convert the numbers that I have in U S dollars in a spreadsheet that
    I need to convert to a foreign exchange rate.
    If possible can someone please let me know or steer me to a web link that has the instructions.
    Thank you,
    Greg

    As jaxjason wrote, we must know a site offering conversion rates to be able to give you an automatic soluce.
    Maybe someone is able to trace the way the calculator grabs the conversion rates.
    This French site converts returns the value of 1 EURO in dollars.
    http://fr.finance.yahoo.com/convertisseur/convert?amt=1&from=EUR&to=USD&submit=C onvertir
    but I don't know the way to force it to download in a csv file.
    There is a second problem.
    The downoaded file is named quotes.csv like the one used to grab the quotes.
    It will be necessary to find a way to switch the file treatment given the doc's contents.
    Yvan KOENIG (from FRANCE vendredi 13 février 2009 22:21:36)

  • Update Foreign Exchange Automatically

    Dear Forum members,
    Can anyone explain the process for automating the upload process for exchange rates. Instead of manually through ob08.
    I know that the SAP program RFTBFF00 will upload the program and I have also read the documentation on the Data format. I also read documentation on the program RFTBFF01 for sample Data
    What I need now is how to acquire real Data from the Data sources like Reuters and any follow up configuration on the SAP systems.
    Thanks in anticipation.

    Hi Ropetra,
    We have also implemented the plants abroad functionality in our PRD and started doing business with UK. We also had foreign currency differences when we run the UK VAT (RFVUMS00 & FB41). The amount in GBP was correct but the local amount (EUR) was not correct. So we got balance (differences) on the GL accounts assigned to the UK VAT code. (These GL accounts are set up as EUR account and "Only balances in local crcy".) The reason for the wrong posting is that SAP determines the exchange rate which is valid on that posting date in transaction FB41. In fact SAP shouldn't do this but should do the posting in FB41 by populating amount and amount LC so the system will calculated the exchange rate on the basis of these two amounts. In this case we should have no differences.
    We solved it so far by NOT selecting the "Nat.Crcy Instead of Local Crcy". So the posting will be in EUR and we will not have differences.
    I intend to create a SAP message.
    Kind regards
    Frans Martens

  • Hello,I'm trying to buy my MacBook pro, but since I am a foreign exchange student I need a international billing address, and I don't have this choose in the website. Someone know what to do?

    Hello, I am a foreign exchange student and I'm trying to buy my macbook, but in the website don't have a choose for international billing address. Someone know what's to do?

    An option is to call the Apple Store. Maybe these guys can help you.
    You can find the telephone number here: http://store.apple.com/Catalog/US/Images/intlstoreroutingpage.html

  • GR/IR clearing - Foreign Exchange Loss

    Hi Sap Gurus,
    My Company code currency is u201CCADu201D and my Group Currency is u201CUSDu201D. I have maintained GR/IR clearing account as u201Conly balances in local currencyu201D
    I have done GR in 2008 for 100 CAD. And I have reversed this GR in 2010.
    When I am doing the automatic clearing of GR/IR: System is posting an entry of Revaluation loss (from KDF trans type) DR To GR/IR clearing a/c (for 0 CAD and in GL view it is 129 USD)
    BSEG table has been updated only with zero but in FLAGLFLEXA I could see  129 USD updated in grup currency .
    My question is u2013
    1.)  why the system is looking for KDF currency when I have maintained u201COnly balance in local currencyu201D for GR/IR clearing account u2013 is that because I have maintained this GR/IR clearing account in OBA1 i.e. for foreign exchange revaluation ?
    2.) If it so, does the OBA1 setting overrides the u201COnly balance in currencyu201D in GL master ?
    3.) As this is just a clearing transaction, Is it acceptable to book a FX loss on this transaction ? and that to it is just a reversal of an erroneous entry.

    Hi Pavan,
    You have maintained this account in OBA1 for KDF, that is why it is showing forex differences. The difference is in Group currency currency and not in your company code currency.
    So, no problem.
    Rgds
    Murali. N

  • Foreign Exchange fluctuation rate is not showing in case of partial payment

    Hi,
    In case of foreign exchange collection from Customer through F-28 in partial payment "Exchange Rate Gain" or "Exchange Rate Loss" is not appearing in GL balance simulation or Customer balance report. Only in case of full payment from Customer then "Exchange Rate Gain" or "Exchange Rate Loss" is appearing in GL balance simulation. What is the reason ?
    Regards,
    Anindita

    Hi
    Even in the scenario described by you,
    You can use both residual and partial payments
    here is what would happen for partial /residual payment after you post the payment.
    Partial payment
    open items
    Debit USD 500
    Credit USD 200
    No cleared items
    Residual Payment
    open items
    Debit USD 300
    cleared items
    Debit USD 500
    Credit USD 200
    Credit USD 300
    Regards
    Sach!n

  • Foreign exchange reporting : how to include Inhouse Cash Accounts correctly

    Hello,
    I want to report the foreign exchange risk position of a mother company (euro based) which is also hosting the inhouse cash center. This means that the foreign currency balances held by the affiliates with the IHC are part of the fx exposure of the mother company.  For example, a polish affiliate that has a PLN balance of 1 mio PLN (in favour of the affiliate) means a FX SHORT position for the mother company.
    In AISFSS or FTR_DEALPOS you can include Cash Management information.  But it makes no sense to include the IHC accounts of the affiliates in the exposure report of the mother company, because the direction of the exposure of the affiliate account is the opposite of the mother company's exposure. i don't want to reprogram CM to inverse the sign.
    So,  then I thought, ok let' s include the receivables/payables accounts 416xxxx  and 439xxx  that centralize (via F9HL + F9HI ) the affiliates balances in the FI ledger of the mother company.  Unfortunately, these two accounts are not managed in open line item mode.  Accountting department does not accept that we cahnge that setting.t   The consequence of that being that in the CM grouping I get the countervalue in euro instead of the balances in the respective foreign currencies.
    Instead of having the IHC balances aggregated in one Accounts Receivable and one Accounts Payable account, Accounting department would agree to have one G/L account per trading partner/ currency, which would be a perfect reflection of a single IHC account.
    I had been told that there would be a T-code (in SAP Inhouse Cash) that allows you to re-split in FI the affiliate balances per currency/trading partner.  If this works, then I can pick the currency balances up in original currency via CM grouping.
    Does anyone know about this T-code (to split), does anyone have documentation  or does anyone have an alternative solution (no ABAP programming).
    Thanks a lot for your help.
    Carl

    Hi,
    Yes you can use this report IHC_TOOL_TRAPO (Note number 750700) and do the necessary settings in the corresponding custimizing table.  Though I am not sure why you want a separate valuation according to different trading partners.  Are they posting to different G/L accounts for different TPs for the account in same currency? 
    Anyway, you can maintain the setting only for those affialiates having accounts in foreign currency.  Also I guess it should be enough if you maintain only for final postings account and not for intermediate postings (provisional) in case if you are having 2 accounts.  You can also check in the customizing node mentioned in the previous post - you can use the additional key field and use a custom coding in case if you feel the report is not going to be suffecient.
    Regards,
    Ravi
    Edited by: Ravishankar Ramamurthy on Jan 21, 2011 5:00 PM

  • How to  issue  currency notes  in  payment program for  Foreign Exchange

    HI
    I    have an issue  in   Foreign exchange  transaction  using  SPOT transaction.   Below is the  process flow
    1.   Record  the  spot transaction
    2.  Settle  transaction
    3. Tranfer  the  documents  to  FI  
    In   ( 3)   the   posting   create   posting in   the customer  for  whom  the  forex is to be issued.   
    My  QUESTION :
    I    have  to   pay  the customer   in   CURRENCY NOTES  and  NOT   by  CHECK    in  foreign currency.   The  automatic payment program  has  payment methods  viz  check, wire transfer.     How  do  I   issue   CURRENCY NOTES    or  TRAVELLERS CHECK .
    Thanks  for   a   immediate  reply.
    kamala

    Hi,
    I am not sure this is a right solution.  But I have some inputs on your requirements:
    1. For traveller cheques you may create a new payment method and do the required configuration for automatic payment program.  Don't generate any payment medium while running APP.
    2. For currency notes (cash payment) I am not sure how it works.  But probably it is possible by creating an account (account ID) for a particular house bank and use that (house bank & account id) for making payment. 
    Per my knowledge we have never used payment method cash (currency notes) in APP.  But logically it would work by create a new payment method and doing the required config for APP.
    Please update if you found a better way to do this.
    thanks & regards,
    Kumar

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