Communicating between Managed Servers

Hi,
I have multiple Managed servers running on the same host, each hosting one web
app on a particular port.
The Admin server runs on port 7001.
Example :
The Managed Server hosting the Session Manager is running on 7100, and the
Managed server hosting the DSLTools is running on port 7200.
The following link works -
http://localhost:7100/sessionmgr/servlet/sessionmgr
Now when I click on DSLTools button on the page displayed by the above link,
it takes me to
http://localhost:7100/dsltools/servlet/dsltools
whereas, I want it to take me to
http://localhost:7200/dsltools/servlet/dsltools
If I type the http://localhost:7200/dsltools/servlet/dsltools
in the web browser, it works.
So, ques is how can I go from Session Manager running on port 7100 to
DSL Tools running on port 7200 ?
I am trying Proxy by path using ProxyServlet, but it doesn't seem to work.
I don't want to hard code the port numbers in the Session Manager servlet
for obvious reasons.
A quick response will be appreciated.
Thank you very much
-Anil Varma

Hi Chris,
Thanks for your suggestion. I am going to try you suggestion
and hope somebody responds to it.
Thanks
-Anil
"Chris Chiodo" <[email protected]> wrote:
Hi Anil,
You might consider asking this same question on the
"weblogic.developer.interest.servlet" newsgroup. The people monitoring
that
group would be likely to know the answer to this question.
Thanks
Chris Chiodo
BEA Systems
"Anil Varma" <[email protected]> wrote in message
news:3f1c020e$[email protected]..
Hi,
I have multiple Managed servers running on the same host, each hostingone
web
app on a particular port.
The Admin server runs on port 7001.
Example :
The Managed Server hosting the Session Manager is running on 7100,and the
Managed server hosting the DSLTools is running on port 7200.
The following link works -
http://localhost:7100/sessionmgr/servlet/sessionmgr
Now when I click on DSLTools button on the page displayed by the abovelink,
it takes me to
http://localhost:7100/dsltools/servlet/dsltools
whereas, I want it to take me to
http://localhost:7200/dsltools/servlet/dsltools
If I type the http://localhost:7200/dsltools/servlet/dsltools
in the web browser, it works.
So, ques is how can I go from Session Manager running on port 7100to
DSL Tools running on port 7200 ?
I am trying Proxy by path using ProxyServlet, but it doesn't seem towork.
I don't want to hard code the port numbers in the Session Manager servlet
for obvious reasons.
A quick response will be appreciated.
Thank you very much
-Anil Varma

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Ports required for communication between Web servers and service applications (the default is HTTP)

We're using SharePoint 2010, I'm the system admin for a SharePoint farm. We enabled SharePoint Search by adding a Search Service APplication. One of the crawl report timer job is failing every 5 minte with the error "Cannot connect to remote server".
After digging around, we found that the server running the timer job tries to connect to the SearchAdmin.svc on the index server, over HTTPS / port 32844 However, communication over SSL via a non default port is blocked by our firewall.
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Hi,
Quoted from
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc262849.aspx#ServiceApp :
You can change the protocol and port binding for each service application. On the Service Applications page in Central Administration, select the service application, and then click
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http://www.xylos.com/default.aspx?id=1050
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TechNet Community Support
Please remember to mark the replies as answers if they help, and unmark the answers if they provide no help. If you have feedback for TechNet Support, contact
[email protected]

Jndi communication between app servers?

Hi all,
I'm quite familiar with J2EE and its communication architecture. In the past, I haven't had the need to communicate from one app server to another (just all web/applet clients to the central app server). But now I need to :)
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Server A does a jndi lookup for a bean on server B. Server A gets this reference and works with it just like any other J2EE client to server B.
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Thanks,
Les Hazlewood

Yes. It's possible. For one of my applications, I have three HP-UX servers that run i2 software on them, but for different business units. I have a J2EE application that does a little bit of everything for the i2 applications. Since the business logic is the same, with only the business dept differing, I deployed 3 instances of JBoss, each running on their own server. My user's log into one of the applications, doesn't matter which, and if they request a service (EJB) that needs to run on a different server, my webapp makes a connection to that server and uses the remote EJB to do the work. It's very possible and an excellent solution.
The solution will depend on which J2EE server you're using.
Here's a class I use to retrieve the InitialContext I need for my application:
package com.cibavision;
import javax.naming.InitialContext;
import javax.naming.Context;
import javax.naming.NamingException;
import java.rmi.RemoteException;
import java.util.Properties;
public class CibaJNDI{
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if businessA then use server1
if businessB then use server2
if businessC then use server3
I then call for my InitialContext, request my EJB, and I'm off and running. No clustering, it matters which machine I'm on (I have to read extract files, etc.)
Works great. We are also a weblogic shop, but I haven't made any calls to weblogic from outside my J2EE app yet, but it should only differ by the hash attributes you pass to new InitialContext( props ).
Hope this helps,
Perry Tew

SAML2 between Managed Servers in same Weblogic

Hi,
I need to configure SAML V2 between 2 or more applications deployed in WebLogic 10.3.6 server.
My problem occurs when I try to use application in same weblogic, different managed server.
* App1 call App2 within an iframe.
* When I access App1, logon page works.
* When I access App2 within iframe, credentials was transfered perfectly from App1 to App2.
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Deploying apps on same weblogic, same managed server, credentials are sharing automatically even SAML not configured.
I can't understand why App1's session was killed when I access App2 in same weblogic and different managed servers.
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I am setting a different cookie for each application. First app show login form and authenticate correctly but when I open second app, credentials was not recnognized.

Security Context Propagation between Managed Servers

          I'm using WLS 8.1 SP2. I have one domain, two managed servers, each on a separate
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          to authenticate to Web App "A" and be able to invoke Web App "B" (from "A") without
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          Thanks.


Frank,
You do not have to do anything to propagate identity between the two
containers. As long as the user is authenticating first..
There have been a number of issues with the propagation, so be sure to stay up
on the service packs.
HTH.
Frank wrote:
How do you propagate security context information from Servlet to
EJBs? I have an web app that uses the container's FORM based authentication.
The servlet resource then calls a session EJB (w/ security contraints
setup). The webapp and the ejbs are bundled into one EAR.
Thanks!--
Tom Mitchell
[email protected]
Very Current Stoneham, MA Weather
http://www.tom.org

Communication between Managed servlet using ProxyServlet

          Hi,
          I have multiple Managed servers running on the same host, each hosting one web
          app on a particular port.
          The Admin server runs on port 7001.
          Example :
          The Managed Server hosting the Session Manager is running on 7100, and the
          Managed server hosting the DSLTools is running on port 7200.
          The following link works -
          http://localhost:7100/sessionmgr/servlet/sessionmgr
          Now when I click on DSLTools button on the page displayed by the above link,
          it takes me to
          http://localhost:7100/dsltools/servlet/dsltools
          whereas, I want it to take me to
          http://localhost:7200/dsltools/servlet/dsltools
          If I type the http://localhost:7200/dsltools/servlet/dsltools
          in the web browser, it works.
          So, ques is how can I go from Session Manager running on port 7100 to
          DSL Tools running on port 7200 ?
          I am trying Proxy by path using HttpProxyServlet, but it doesn't seem to work.
          I may be doing something wrong setting up HttpProxyServlet to handle this,
          but not sure what ? Any suggestions.
          I don't want to hard code the port numbers in the Session Manager servlet
          for obvious reasons.
          A quick response will be appreciated.
          Thank you very much
          -Anil Varma


Hi jDee
I�m not sure that the connection is kept opened, I mean by �you need to know that http connexion, DataInputStreamand DataOutputStream are always opened� that I don�t make an explicit call to close() method.
My aim is to keep the http connection alive, because the Servlet needs to send with push mode some request to the Midlet. The Midlet handles the request and answers the Servlet.
the behavior of my application is the following:
DataInputStream dis=null;
DataOutputStream dos=null;
they are 3 modules: mobile client (J2ME), Mobile Server (J2ME), Coordinator (Servlet)
1-Server: open Httpconnection with Servlet
2-Server: open dis and dos
3-Server: send user & passwd trougth dos
4-Coordinator: check user&passwd
5-Coordinator: send response
6-Server:keep connection opened
7-Server: execut while(dis.avalaible()<1) {};
8-Client: send Request to coordinator
9-Coordinator: redirect Request to the right Server
10-Server: get request dis.read()
11-Server: handles the request
12-Server: answer the coordinator dos.write()
13-Coordinator:redirect the Response to the right Client
14-Client:get answer coming from Coordinator
Regards
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Propagating Security Context between Managed Servers

I'm using WLS 8.1 SP2. I have one domain, two managed servers, each on a separate
hardware server. Each managed server hosts a different web application. I want
to authenticate to Web App "A" and be able to invoke Web App "B" (from "A") without
having to re-authenticate. Is this possible via configuration and, if so, how?
Thanks.

"K Northey" <[email protected]> wrote in message
news:[email protected]...
>
I'm using WLS 8.1 SP2. I have one domain, two managed servers, each on aseparate
hardware server. Each managed server hosts a different web application.I want
to authenticate to Web App "A" and be able to invoke Web App "B" (from"A") without
having to re-authenticate. Is this possible via configuration and, if so,how?
>
Does the following do what you want?
http://e-docs.bea.com/wls/docs81/security/thin_client.html#1039551
Multiple Web Applications, Cookies, and Authentication
By default, WebLogic Server assigns the same cookie name (JSESSIONID) to all
Web applications. When you use any type of authentication, all Web
applications that use the same cookie name use a single sign-on for
authentication. Once a user is authenticated, that authentication is valid
for requests to any Web Application that uses the same cookie name. The user
is not prompted again for authentication.
If you want to require separate authentication for a Web application, you
can specify a unique cookie name or cookie path for the Web application.
Specify the cookie name using the CookieName parameter and the cookie path
with the CookiePath parameter, defined in the WebLogic-specific deployment
descriptor weblogic.xml <session-descriptor> element. For more information,
see session-descriptor in Assembling and Configuring Web Applications.
If you want to retain the cookie name and still require independent
authentication for each Web application, you can set the cookie path
parameter (CookiePath) differently for each Web application.
As of Service Pack 1, BEA Systems added a new capability to WebLogic Server
that allows a user to securely access HTTPS resources in a session that was
initiated using HTTP, without loss of session data. To enable this new
feature, add AuthCookieEnabled="true" to the WebServer element in
config.xml:
<WebServer Name="myserver" AuthCookieEnabled="true"/> Setting
AuthCookieEnabled to true causes the WebLogic Server instance to send a new
secure cookie to the browser when authenticating via an HTTPS connection.
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security-constrained HTTPS resources only if the cookie is sent from the
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SCOM 2012 client movement between Management servers

Hi all,
I know In SCOM 2012 sp1 all management servers are peers , if I have five management servers ( A, B, C, D,E ) and 2 gateway servers ( F, G ) . One client is assigned to A management server , in case if that management server down , to which management servers
or Gateway server that particular client will move any rule.
Thanks,
Sengottuvel M

By default, "the first available management server". There is a black-box algorithm that works behind the scenes in terms of agent failover selection. The only way to control this is to set agent failover lists, and this is only possible via the command
shell (powershell) - but it's relatively easy to do.
Here are a couple interesting articles about the topic:
http://blog.scomskills.com/agent-managementlist-primary-and-failover-configuration/
http://blogs.technet.com/b/jonathanalmquist/archive/2009/11/11/set-failover-management-server-for-gateway-role.aspx
...and there are probably 100 other blog posts talking about the same thing.
Jonathan Almquist | SCOMskills, LLC (http://scomskills.com)

Communication between servers on different FIs

Just want to verify communication between UCS servers on same chassis but having active vNICs on different FIs (Diagram attached). I suppose all commuication between server-A & server-B will happen through Layer 2 switch as server-A will generate an ARP request for Server-B, that will be passed over to FI-A and then to L2 switch down to FI-B, where server-B will respond back with it's MAC that will then be passed to Server-A via FI-B to L2 switch to FI-A.I don't expect any traffic between servers A & B be routed via firewall? Is there anything I need to be careful about in this design? Going forward we will have multiple subinterfaces on the firewall for different VLANs and all servers will use Firewall as default gateway.

you may want to look at the throughput of your firewall for server-server traffic in different VLANs. If your L2 switch is 10G but your firewall is only 1G then you could have a potential bottle neck.

Cannot get Telnet to work between two servers on same subnet

I need to test if communication is open on port 8444 between two servers.
I installed telnet client on a Server 2008 R2 server and telnet server on a Server 2008 SP2 server. I also manually started the Telnet service that was set to disabled on the SP2 server. I disabled the Windows firewall on both servers. They
are both on the same subnet so they don't need to go through any routers and I can ping successfully.
When I try to telnet to the remote server by typing telnet "ip address" 8444, I get an error that says "Could not open connection to host, on port 8444: Connection failed.
I tried other ports like port 80 and got the same error.
What else is needed to get this to work?

VMs have nothing to do with it, as long as there's network communication between the servers.
As I said, there must be a service or application listening on that port for it to respond. For example, try this:
C:\> telnet
When the telnet prompt opens, type in:
open mail.messaging.microsoft.com 25
If it works, you should see this:
220 CH1EHSMHS035.bigfish.com Microsoft ESMTP MAIL Service ready at Thu, 7 Feb 2013 00:57:33 +0000
That means that Microsoft's mail servers are LISTENING on port 25 and it responded. And note, telnetting to port 25 is a non-default telnet port, because port 23 is the default telnet port. When you type in a space and then a port number, you're telling
the telnet client to use that port.
That is the SAME THING if some sort of application or service is listening on port 8444 on that other server you're trying to telnet to. If there is no app or service listening, it will just time out.
And no, installing the TELNET service on that sercver will NOT answer to any port other than 23. The telnet service by default, uses TCP 23, unless you specify otherwise.
So once again, what service or app on that server is supposed to be listening on 8444?
Ace Fekay
MVP, MCT, MCITP/EA, MCTS Windows 2008/R2 & Exchange 2007, Exchange 2010 EA, MCSE & MCSA 2003/2000, MCSA Messaging 2003
Microsoft Certified Trainer
Microsoft MVP - Directory Services
Technical Blogs & Videos: http://www.delawarecountycomputerconsulting.com/
This post is provided AS-IS with no warranties or guarantees and confers no rights.

Port forwarding between two servers from Same subnet

Hi,
We have a Cisco ASA 5520 Version 8.4(3). There exists a site to site VPN tunnel between us and a client and the client sends us the data to our local host/server 10.x.x.20 on port 52944. So 10.x.x.20 gets data on port 52944. We want to forward this data to a test server 10.x.x.21( same subnet IP) on port 52945. so basically I want to forward traffic from 10.x.x.20:52944 to 10.x.x.21:52945.
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I know we can add one more ACL in the VPN tunnel and add this test server IP in the ACL. but, then I have to ask the clinet to change their ACL too. I dont want to do this. So I want to wrok around it. Any help or suggestions is much appreciated.
Thanks in advance :)
This is my first ticket in the support community.
cs

VMs have nothing to do with it, as long as there's network communication between the servers.
As I said, there must be a service or application listening on that port for it to respond. For example, try this:
C:\> telnet
When the telnet prompt opens, type in:
open mail.messaging.microsoft.com 25
If it works, you should see this:
220 CH1EHSMHS035.bigfish.com Microsoft ESMTP MAIL Service ready at Thu, 7 Feb 2013 00:57:33 +0000
That means that Microsoft's mail servers are LISTENING on port 25 and it responded. And note, telnetting to port 25 is a non-default telnet port, because port 23 is the default telnet port. When you type in a space and then a port number, you're telling
the telnet client to use that port.
That is the SAME THING if some sort of application or service is listening on port 8444 on that other server you're trying to telnet to. If there is no app or service listening, it will just time out.
And no, installing the TELNET service on that sercver will NOT answer to any port other than 23. The telnet service by default, uses TCP 23, unless you specify otherwise.
So once again, what service or app on that server is supposed to be listening on 8444?
Ace Fekay
MVP, MCT, MCITP/EA, MCTS Windows 2008/R2 & Exchange 2007, Exchange 2010 EA, MCSE & MCSA 2003/2000, MCSA Messaging 2003
Microsoft Certified Trainer
Microsoft MVP - Directory Services
Technical Blogs & Videos: http://www.delawarecountycomputerconsulting.com/
This post is provided AS-IS with no warranties or guarantees and confers no rights.

Transaction span two WLS managed servers (non-clustering)

(Weblogic 6.1 - non-clustering version)
I have two managed servers configured on a single machine on different
ports, and I am not using clustering weblogic. Assuming I have EJB A
deployed on managed server 1, and EJB B deployed on managed server 2.
I want to have EJB A to invoke EJB B. In EJB A, I guess I will
probably create the InitialContext with the URL of managed server 2,
then do the JNDI look up and call EJB B.
My questions are:
- Can weblogic handle transaction that spans two managed servers
(non-clustering setting)?
- Does weblogic use XA to handle transaction between managed servers?
- Do I need to do any JTA code in order to achieve that (instead of
just letting the EJB container to handle the transaction for me)?
Thanks in advance!
B.L.

Hi,
"benson" <[email protected]> wrote in message
news:[email protected]..
(Weblogic 6.1 - non-clustering version)
I have two managed servers configured on a single machine on different
ports, and I am not using clustering weblogic. Assuming I have EJB A
deployed on managed server 1, and EJB B deployed on managed server 2.
I want to have EJB A to invoke EJB B. In EJB A, I guess I will
probably create the InitialContext with the URL of managed server 2,
then do the JNDI look up and call EJB B.
My questions are:
- Can weblogic handle transaction that spans two managed servers
(non-clustering setting)?Yes, it can.
- Does weblogic use XA to handle transaction between managed servers?Yes, it does. Make sure you use TX DataSources. If the servers are connected
to different databases, TX DataSources should be based on connection pools
used XA drivers.
- Do I need to do any JTA code in order to achieve that (instead of
just letting the EJB container to handle the transaction for me)?No, you don't. WebLogic will take care about handling
distributed TXs.
Regards,
Slava Imeshev

JNDI, EARs and managed servers

I have an EAR file containing a WAR and two EJB JAR files. When I deploy this EAR
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is fine.
I now have a scenario where I have added a managed server (so there are two targets
to pick from). I deploy to the admin server as before but I change the target
for the Web module to the new server. This is a typical deployment scenario where
the web container runs on a different server (perhaps in a DMZ) to the EJB container.
Now when I try and run the web app, the servlet fails with a naming exception
- it can't find the EJB in the JNDI tree. Sure enough when I go to the console
and look, the EJBs are only in the JNDI tree on the first server (those they are
targeted to). So the servlet is quite right to complain.
Is then JNDI tree not shared between managed servers? Shouldn't the EJBs be seen
even though they are on separate servers?
If I make the new server a target on the EJBs then it is obviously resolved but
I don't want these remote EJBs on my Web Application server. These are not, and
shouldn't be, clustered servers.
How do I get around this? Do I have to specify the URL_PREFIX of the first server
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to a different target, I would then have to change the URL_PREFIX again.
I'm using WLS 6.1 sp1

I think renaming them in the config.xml IS the easy way. You cannot do it through the console. Truthfully, that is a planning step and you should probably have the correct names before building in order to avoid other issues. Might be easier to just recreate the managed servers.

Communication between the DNS/DHCP Manager and OES Server

No communication between the DNS/DHCP Manager Console and OES server (status,start,stop)
The screenshot shows the tab "DHCP (OES Linux)" in the DNS / DHCP Manager console
in the bottom of the image it shows the state of the DHCP servers.
allDHCP.JPG
The dhcp service is started on all these servers
You can see that the status is known only for four servers.
The button "start/stop DHCP service" works fine on this servers and
the dhcp service can be canceled and also restarted
But the status of the "dhcp service" is not recognized for all the other DHCP servers
and so we can not start or stop dhcp service on these servers.
All servers were installed at different times (last three years) with OES11 and
are upgraded to OES11SP2 with all patches.
The server keto (DHCP_keto) is a new installation OES11SP2 few days ago.
All OES servers were set up identically from me. LDAP, LUM, DMS, DHCP works fine.
Which service on the OES server is responsible for
communication (status indicator) between the DNS/DHCP Manager and the OES serve?
How the status query is performed by the DNS/DHCP Manager?
How can I test the communication to the server on the client (console)?
Which configurationfiles I should be compare on the server?
Thanks in advance
Gernot

gernot,
It appears that in the past few days you have not received a response to your
posting. That concerns us, and has triggered this automated reply.
Has your problem been resolved? If not, you might try one of the following options:
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and rest assured we will issue a stern reprimand to our posting bot.
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Linking JMS Queues between two managed servers

I have an environment setup with an AdminServer and multiple managed servers all under the same domain and on the same cluster. They are all running under the same Instance of weblogic on one Windows Server.
          I have two different applications on two managed servers that need to have a JMS Queue be linked between them. Essentially have Server1's 'inbox' link to Server2's 'outbox' and Server2's 'inbox' link to Server2's 'outbox'. Each has their own name for their inbox or outbox.
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          Server2(inbox)=Server1(outbox)
          I've tried using Foreign JNDI Providers, however it doesn't allow me to input two addresses (Server1 and Server2).
          Is there another function that would do the same thing?
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You can make use of Message Bridges between any 3th party JMS provider or SAF (store & forward) if both jms servers are weblogic servers.
          Schelstraete Bart
          [email protected]
          http://www.schelstraete.org
          http://www.linkedin.com/in/bschelst
          Edited by bschelst at 04/07/2008 1:27 PM

Communicating between Managed Servers

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