Defining  a 1:1 mapping back from the target to source

Is it always required to define a 1:1 mapping back from the target to source
object in a 1:M mapping?
Can I not just define one to may mapping in source mapping?
Thanks.

You can map a 1:M without the returning 1:1. The issue is that you now have made it your application model's responsibility to manage the FK relationship instead of leveraging TopLink.
The FAQ addresses this here.
Doug

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