OBIEE accessing two schemas? Good vs. Bad?

I have an option to organize certain tables in two schemas. I wanted to know what are the drawbacks of having information placed in two separate schemas when it comes to OBIEE answers / dashboards?
Thank you,

One database folder (with schemas HR and SH) and one connection pool which is set to HR.
Example code (countries and customers are from SH and countries_hr from HR) from NQQuery.log:
select distinct T24986.CUST_FIRST_NAME as c1,
T24974.COUNTRY_NAME as c2,
T26180.COUNTRY_NAME as c3
from
COUNTRIES T24974,
COUNTRIES_HR T26180,
CUSTOMERS T24986
where ( T24974.COUNTRY_ID = T24986.COUNTRY_ID and T24986.COUNTRY_ID = T26180.COUNTRY_ID)
order by c1, c2, c3
grant select on sh.countries to hr
grant select on sh.customers to hr
create or replace public synonym countries for sh.countries
create or replace public synonym customers for sh.customers
So in this case I had to make grants and synonyms on tables in SH to be visible to HR (connection pool).
Regards
Goran
http://108obiee.blogspot.com

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"Best Practice" for a stored procedure that needs to access two schemas?

Greetings all,
When my company's application is deployed, two schema owners are typically created and all database objects divided between the two. I'll call them FIRST and SECOND.
In a standard, vanilla implementation there is never any reason for the two to "talk to each other". No rights to objects in one schema are ever granted to the other.
I am currently charged, however, with writing custom code to roll up data from one of the schemas and update tables in the other with the rollups. I have created a user whose job it is to run this process, and this user has the proper permissions to all necessary objects in both schemas. I'll call this user MRBATCH.
Typically, any custom objects, whether they be additional staging tables, temp tables or stored procedures are saved in the FIRST schema. I tried to save this new stored procedure in the FIRST schema and compile it, but got "Insufficient priviliges" errors whenever the code in the stored procedure tried to access any tables in the SECOND schema. This surprised me a little bit because I had no plans to actually EXECUTE the stored procedure as FIRST, but I guess I can understand it from the point of view of, you ought be able to execute something you own.
So which would be be "better" (assuming there's any difference): Grant FIRST all of the rights it needs in SECOND and save the stored procedure in FIRST, or could I just save the stored procedure in the MRBATCH schema? I'm not sure which would be "better practice".
Is there a third option I'm overlooking perhaps?
Thanks
Joe

In this case I would put it again into schema THIRD. This is a kind of API schema. There are procedures in it that allow some customized functionality. And since you grant only the right to execute those procedures (should be packages of cause) you won't get into any conflicts about allowing somebody too much.
Note that this suggestion seems very similiar to putting the procedure directly to the executing user MRBATCH. It depends how this schemauser is used. I always prefer separating users from schemas.
By definition the oracle object to represent a schema is identical to the oracle object representing a user (exception: externally defined users).
my definition is:
Schema => has objects (tables, packages) and uses tables space
User => has priviledges (including create session and connect) and uses temp tablespace only. Might have synonyms and views.
You can mix both, but sometimes it makes much sense to separate one from the other.
Edited by: Sven W. on Aug 13, 2009 9:51 AM

Accessing diff schema at a time in 9ifs

Hi,
Some of business data exits in ifs schema, other datas are exists in oracle db schema. i want to generate a report by using data exists in these two schema. Is that possible through reports server. I badly need solution to this problem. If any one knows solution to this, please let me know.
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srini

Hello Srini,
Here 2 solutions:
a. One of the way is to create synonym of the objects of schema A in the schema B and grant the select on this objects.
b. The other one is, if you are the version 9.0.x of Oracle Reports is to use the JDBC data source. Using this data source you can create reports based on multiple connection.
But if you are in the same instance I would prefer the solution a (synonym / grants)
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Hi there,
I am searching a good way to copy data between two schemas in the same instance.
Both schemas have an identical structure such as triggers, tables, views and so on. The only difference is the purpose: one is the productivity system and one is for development.
I looked at datapump but I do not explicit want to export / import. I want to keep the data in the productivity schema as well as copy it to the other schema. Any ideas? I found out there is a copy statement but I dont't know how that works.
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Jörn

Thank you for your replies!
I also thought of creating a second instance for development and move the dev - schema to it. I just don't know whether our server can handle both (performance?). Anyway the idea is to have a possibility to quickly rebuild the data inside a schema without indixes or triggers, just pure data. I thought the easiest way would be to copy the data between the schemas as they are exactly the same. However if you tell me DataPunp is the best solution i won't deny using it :).
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Oracle 11G, access other schema's procedure

Hi all,
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null;
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{code}
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ORA-06550: line 1, column 7:
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Jaggyam

Thanks All for you response!
Grant is given, otherwise it would have been clearly mentioned in the error
We are passing all the parameters with appropriate value. To throw more light on that, we did not make any change in the java. But simply dropped the synonym took the copy of the procedure from SCH2 and compiled in SCH1. After doing so, I didn't get any error in Java. So nothing wrong in the number of parameters passed or their type.
By looking at the error message, even I thought the parameters are not properly passed from java. But without making any code change Java, it is working fine after we moved the procedure to SCH1. Again in either case when I called from SQLPLUS, I had no issues. I don't have a concrete evidence to put in front of my Java team to prove that nothing is wrong in the code.
Kindly throw your thoughts please.
Thanks in advance,
Jaggyam

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OBIEE accessing two schemas? Good vs. Bad?

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