Capital Cenvat iisue in case of asset transfer

Hi SAP GURUS,
I am purchasing asset on which I am claiming the capital cenvat credit. Which is 50% in first year & 50 % in second year. But after 3 months I am transferring this asset to a different excisable plant of my company. How can i transfer the cenvat credit with this.
Thanks
Cheers

M adding up in above.......
in J1id , select Material and Chapter ID Combination , give material type assets. Based on Material type, system calculates Cenvat and treat like that. U dont need to do much difeerent anyth in the case of assets.
Also cross check that u have ticked Immediate credit on capital goods in Company code settings.
Before posting any excise invoice it is advisable to see the simulation of excise invoice for correct posting of u201CCenvat on holdu201D and u201CCenvat availu201D part.
thanks

Similar Messages

Where is the setting of 50% cenvat in case of asset in SPRO

Hi,
In case of asset if we select the Asset in J1ID for the material and if asset code is mention in the PO then system post the 50% of the duty to the on hold account this is OK, but i want to know where is the setting for this 50% , this is just for information, is it hard coded in the program or the 50% is mention in customizing can we change this 50% to some other value,
regards,
zafar

M adding up in above.......
in J1id , select Material and Chapter ID Combination , give material type assets. Based on Material type, system calculates Cenvat and treat like that. U dont need to do much difeerent anyth in the case of assets.
Also cross check that u have ticked Immediate credit on capital goods in Company code settings.
Before posting any excise invoice it is advisable to see the simulation of excise invoice for correct posting of u201CCenvat on holdu201D and u201CCenvat availu201D part.
thanks

Issue in Depreciation Adjustment while Asset Transfer

Hi,
We have some old legacy assets which is capitalized in 2010 and depreciating for the last 4 years, These old assets contain the value of several different assets and the usefull life of the old asset is 50 years, Now we need to segregate these old asset to different new assets , my process contains
1) Creating new assets with different asset class with different usefull life
2) Transfer the respective value from the main asset to the new assets
3) Adjustment of depreciation already posted.
Here i am facing some issues regarding the asset transfer , anybody suggest which is the best way to transfer the asset acquisition value to new assets ?
when i am using ABUMN to transfer the values , system posting depreciation value adjustment which is the alredy posted depreciation for the past 4 years with the usefull life as 50 years. Is there any methode to adjust these value ?
If i am posting Asset transfer with F-02 (with negative posting) , system will transfer the net book value and start the depreiation calculation based on the usefull life of the new asset. Here system is not considering the depreciation already posted.
Is it possible to make changes in the system where assets will consider the depreciation start date as 2010 (old asset depreciation start date), If i am manually changing the depreciation start date then system is calculating the depreciation start date as 1st period of the current year (because previous years are alredy closed),
instead of 5 years usefull life ,system depreciated the values with 50 years, i need to adjust the posted depreciation and when i create a new asset with usefull life of 5 years i need to manage the asset as already 4 years usefull life is expired.
Is there any solution ?
Regards
San

Hi Ajay,
Case : We have an asset 1000, which contains a value of $ 100000, it was capitalizes in 2010 with usefull life of 50 years and past 4 years depreciating with 50 years usefull life, This is a legacy asset and contains the value of so mny different assets.
Now we need to create different assetd with different asset class and contains different usefull life, We need to transfer the value from Asset 1000 to these new created assets, here my concern is about the depreciation already posted to the asset 1000,
Assume my new assets value is $ 20000, i can transfer the value from asset 1000 to my new created asset. but here depreciation should be a problem because last 4 years depreciation is calculated as 20000 @ 50 years , but actual usefull life was 5 years.
Is there any methode to adjust the already posted depreciation.
Regards
San

Depreciation Adjustment While Asset Transfer

Hi,
We have some old legacy assets which is capitalized in 2010 and depreciating for the last 4 years, These old assets contain the value of several different assets and the usefull life of the old asset is 50 years, Now we need to segregate these old asset to different new assets , my process contains
1) Creating new assets with different asset class with different usefull life
2) Transfer the respective value from the main asset to the new assets
3) Adjustment of depreciation already posted.
Here i am facing some issues regarding the asset transfer , anybody suggest which is the best way to transfer the asset acquisition value to new assets ?
when i am using ABUMN to transfer the values , system posting depreciation value adjustment which is the alredy posted depreciation for the past 4 years with the usefull life as 50 years. Is there any methode to adjust these value ?
If i am posting Asset transfer with F-02 (with negative posting) , system will transfer the net book value and start the depreiation calculation based on the usefull life of the new asset. Here system is not considering the depreciation already posted.
Is it possible to make changes in the system where assets will consider the depreciation start date as 2010 (old asset depreciation start date), If i am manually changing the depreciation start date then system is calculating the depreciation start date as 1st period of the current year (because previous years are alredy closed),
instead of 5 years usefull life ,system depreciated the values with 50 years, i need to adjust the posted depreciation and when i create a new asset with usefull life of 5 years i need to manage the asset as already 4 years usefull life is expired.
Is there any solution ?
Regards
San

Hi Ajay,
Case : We have an asset 1000, which contains a value of $ 100000, it was capitalizes in 2010 with usefull life of 50 years and past 4 years depreciating with 50 years usefull life, This is a legacy asset and contains the value of so mny different assets.
Now we need to create different assetd with different asset class and contains different usefull life, We need to transfer the value from Asset 1000 to these new created assets, here my concern is about the depreciation already posted to the asset 1000,
Assume my new assets value is $ 20000, i can transfer the value from asset 1000 to my new created asset. but here depreciation should be a problem because last 4 years depreciation is calculated as 20000 @ 50 years , but actual usefull life was 5 years.
Is there any methode to adjust the already posted depreciation.
Regards
San

Inter company asset transfer

Hello Sap Experts
we have a requiremnts where user want that we should create new asset master data & tfd some existing asset to these newely created assets.
Now we can create new assets under AS01 but how to transfer the values to new asset, we are not aware about it.
Kindly help us on this & let us know the configuration steps & end user procees for it
Thanks & Regards
Deepak Garg

Hi
Transferring of asset may not be resolved with the standard transactions as suggested from Indian point of view, specially if your asset's physical locations are seperate (Involvement of Excise and VAT). You need to show the asset transfer as sale and purchase in such a scenario. Create the plants as customer and vendors in the system and create a sales order for the asset you are retiring. The accounting entry created on Billing will be:
Customer Dr
    To Asset Sale - Clearing
    To Excise Duty Payable
    To VAT/CST Payable
Then do a sale of asset with revenue without customer through ABAON. The accounting entry would be
Asset Sale- Clearing Dr
Accumulated Depreciation Dr
     To Fiexd Asset
You create a purchase order for the plant where you want to create a new asset. The accounting entry would be
Asset A/c Dr
     To GR/IR - Asset Clearing
The accounting entry for Excise
Excise Duty A/c Dr
Excise Duty on Hold Dr
     To Cenvat Clearing A/c
When you do Invoice verification, the accounting entry would be
Cenvat Clearing A/c Dr
VAT on Capital Goods Dr
GR/IR - Asset Clearing Dr
      To Vendor A/c
Regards
Sanil Bhandari

While doing J1iex In case of Stock Transfer Duty is Getting Inventorised

Dear Experts,
In case of stock transfer of capital goods between 2 plants, when we are doing J1IEX (for the receiving plant) and tick the u201Ccalculate excise duties based on ratesu201D, the system copies the credit due amount to inventoried duty.
Due to this the total duty becomes sum of credit due and inventorised duty.
Why is the system copying the credit due amount to the inventorised duty in case of stock transfer only
Edited by: Burzes Batliwalla on Jun 13, 2011 7:17 AM

I am also checking this out with Burzes .Everything is ok with conditions,if we donot click "calculate excise duty based on rates" . Nothing is inventorised.
But problem starts when we tick "calculate excise duty based on rates" and duty gets Invetorised.
which is
Recalculate Excise Duty
Recalculates the excise duty on the item.
Procedure
Select this indicator if you change any of the excise duty rates in the above fields. Then press Enter.
The system then recalculates the excise duty amounts accordingly.
Why is this happening.
Anyone can send some useful suggestions

Issue In Asset Transfer

Hi
I have an issue in Asset. I have created an asset in a wrong asset class by mistake. Now I want to transfer the asset value to an asset created in the right asset class. But when I am doing this, the system is transferring the proptionate depreciation calculated to the new asset. Pls suggest
KM

Hi
It seems that the depreciation key has been configured to calculate the depreciation from the depreciation start key mainatained in the depreciation area. Hence, when you do the asset transfer, the system would post a pro rata depreciation from the depreciation start date to the date of transfer and transfer the same to the new asset. Howver, you can avoid that by changing the depreciation start date to the date of transfer. In such a case, no pro rata depreciation would not be calculated and transferred to the new asset.
Assign points if the information is useful to you
Regards
Sanil Bhandari

ABT1N Intercompany Asset Transfer error: AA390   T type 230 not possible

Dear experts,
I am trying to post an intercompany asset transfer with trx code ABT1N but when simulating the error code
Transaction type 230 not possible (posting to affiliated company) appears. This is the explanation of the error:
Message no. AA390
Diagnosis
     For the current document, you specified either implicitly (via the
     customer/vendor), or explicitly (with a manual entry), that this posting
     is to an affiliated company. In this case, Asset Accounting requires you
     to use special transaction types. This enables the system to separately
     identify such transactions.
I do not understand the error because TType is "Retirement to affiliated company with revenue" so should be correct.
Does anybody know what could be wrong?
Cheers

Hi
Firstly, check out Note 209643.
Secondly, please read the long text of the error message again. The
transaction type must be set as "post to affiliated company". And
you must check back the followings :-
1. Please execcute function: SAP IMG -> FI -> asset accounting ->
    transaction -> specify default transaction type.
    You can find the default transaction type for "retirement from
    inter-company transfer" and "acquisition from inter-company
    transfer".
Then check in their definition whether they are relevant to
    affiliated company.
If they are NOT RELEVANT to affiliated company, you can
    substitute them with other transaction type Relevant to affiliated
    company.
2. Please check the definition of transfer variant. In the transfer
    variant, you have assigned the transaction type for both retirement
    and acqusition for relation type 1. Both transaction types should be
    set as "post to affiliated company" .
Please note that the abovementioned points must be checked because
the system logic will check the validity of the default value in
Point 1.
Then the transaction type in the point 2 will be used instead and
re-checked again.
Have you try to use 'No Reveune' in the specification for revenue?,
I think if it is afflicated companies, you are not allowed to use
revenue.
This error can also be produced because a wrong definition of the trans-
fer variants. Please have a look on note 327088 for further details.
Most of the issues on this matter were solved with this last Note.
Cheers, Blaz

1KEI asset transfer to PCA

I am trying to understand how asset transfer works to PCA. For vendor and customer line items, I understand open items are transferred to PCA using 1KEK. For assets, there are no open items. So, I am thinking month end asset balances are transferred to PCA. For example, an asset was capitalized during the month for $100 and then scrapped before month end for $100. So, the asset balance is zero. Will this asset transfer at month end to PCA?
Like AR and AP line items, is there a table where profit center for asset line items is stored? For AR and AP, it is stored in BFOD_A and BFOK_A tables.
Is there a way to eliminate this periodic transfer of AP, AR and assets in PCA and instead have on-line real time transfer?
Any insights will be appreciated.
Thanks in advance
Sanjiv

Hello Sanjiv,
the periodic transfer of assets reads the current data from the asset tables for stock and depreciation. There are several tables to be read and PCA makes use of the logical database from FI-AA.
You can eliminate the periodical transfer by entering all asset accounts in trx. 3KEH/3KEI. Then the asset postings will be updated in realtime in classic PCA.
The online transfer of AR and AP is possible by entering the accounts into 3KEH/3KEI but all postings will flow to this default profit center and not to the origin profit center which is set by F.5D. Therefore we do recommend the periodical transfer and execution of F.5D/1KEK for open items and classic PCA.
Best regards,
Daniela

Changing useful life of assets during asset to asset transfer

Hi All,
We need to transfer some assets to new assets changing its useful life. Below is my scenario.
Old Asset "A" has an useful life of 5 years and depreciation start date is 01.01.2006. Where this asset would be fully depreciated by the end of year 2011. The depreciation runs have been completed for November 2009.
Before using transaction ABUMN, I created a new asset "B" in a different asset class with the exact details of the old asset ONLY changing the useful life to 3 Years. (even the dep start date is 01.01.2006 - same as the old asset)
In Tcode ABUMN, I entered the old asset, doc date as 30.11.2009, posting date as 30.11.2009 and asset value date as 30.11.2009. Transfer variant 4 is been used in this case. The transaction went through successfully. The main idea behind this process was to depreciate the entire new asset "B" by the end of 2009, which should be the case as if 01.01.2006 is the dep start date with useful life of 3 years.
But this is not happenning. The entire depreciation is not been shown under plannned values for DEC 2009. Only a small value is shown. I need this asset to be fully depreciated by 31.12.2009 in variably absorbing the enire balance depreciation for the month of Dec 2009.
Please help me resolve this asap or please suggest me a different way of doing this if I am not doing it the right way.
Thanks & Regards,
Maleeq

Hi Kishore,
I need to change the asset class as well and thats why I need to to do the asset to asset transfer.
Thanks,
Maleeq

Asset transfer date

Hi,
Thanks for ur response, till now we were not run the depreciation from the golive date, now they were reconciling the depreciation in AW01N with manually for the last fiscal year 2007 to run the depreciation. In the asset transfer date(IMG) it is showing 31.03.2005. I think somebody changed the take over date in asset transfer date. In Asset explorer (AW01N) it is showing difference value in Ordinary depreciation while comparing with manual depreciation and also in AS92 it is not showing the take over values getting green colour message as "Asset was not created as old asset data record - (Check your entry)" I had checked in development server. if I changed the Asset Transfer date it is asking the recalcuate the depreciation. My doubt this is correct solution, if it is correct shall I do this directly in Production. Kindly helpme in this issue.
Regards,
Prasad

Hi,
This defending upon your fiscal year varient. Is it Jan - Dec or Apr-Mar.
If Jan to Dec, change your asset transfer date to 29.02.2008 and upload it in any of the day in march or later. In this case, you have to upload all the assets purchased during last year with acc. depreciation and current yr procurement, you have two option, upload with 2 month dep or upload without dep and run the dep on 3rd month for period 3, it will post all 3 months dep at once.
If Apr-Mar, keep the data as such, upload the data on 1st Apr. All previous year procurement should be uploaded with acc. dep.
Hope it helps
Saravanan.A

Basic/Important Info in FICO / Asset Transfer / ABUMN tx????

Hi Experts,
Pls. provide some imp./practically useful points in ABUMN tx in FICO, like,
1) Wht is Asset Transfer?
2) When we will do it? I mean, a scenario?
3) Wht happenns beyond the screens of ABUMN tx?
4) After SAVEing in ABUMN tx, I got the posting Doc#, so, In which table this posting is happening/ Where I can see this Doc#?
5) Actually, I am lookig for Damaged and Missed assets posting, so, any important points to be considered?
Thanq

1) Wht is Asset Transfer?
Ans: Asset Transfer is transfer of asset values, depreciation terms from
 >an asset class to another asset class
 >within the asset class to another asset
 >can be between two company codes
2) When we will do it? I mean, a scenario?
Ans: In case
 >an asset is merged with another
 >trasferring company if transferred to another company code
 >Change in asset class
3) Wht happenns beyond the screens of ABUMN tx?
Ans: The old asset is retired and the new one will get created, if transferred to new one
4) After SAVEing in ABUMN tx, I got the posting Doc#, so, In which table this posting is happening/ Where I can see this Doc#?
Ans: Check table BKPF for Header Data and BSEG for Line Item Data you have asset related fields in BSEG table-ANLN1,ANLN2,ANBWA,BZDAT
5) Actually, I am lookig for Damaged and Missed assets posting
Ans: In case of Damaged or missed asset you can use the T-Code-ABAVN - Asset Retirement by Scrapping

Asset transfer report - for-each-group

- <FAS430>
- <LIST_G_SETUP>
- <G_SETUP>
<COMPANY_NAME>ABCD</COMPANY_NAME>
<LOCATION_FLEX_STRUCTURE>101</LOCATION_FLEX_STRUCTURE>
- <LIST_G_ASSET_TRANS>
- <G_ASSET_TRANS>
<ASSET_NUMBER>1321780</ASSET_NUMBER>
<ASSET_DESCRIPTION>CABLES & CONNECTORS</ASSET_DESCRIPTION>
<TAG_NUMBER>K-PM-B-HCB-3899</TAG_NUMBER>
<TRANSNUM>3512926</TRANSNUM>
- <LIST_G_TRANSFERS>
- <G_TRANSFERS>
<TO_FROM>0</TO_FROM>
<GL_ACCOUNT>81216</GL_ACCOUNT>
<COMP_CODE>118</COMP_CODE>
<COST_CENTER>000</COST_CENTER>
<LOCATION>KANNUR CHALODE NONE CHALODE NONE</LOCATION>
<START_DATE>21-JUL-08</START_DATE>
<UNITS>-200</UNITS>
<ASSIGNED_TO />
<CCID>6705</CCID>
- <LIST_G_SUB>
- <G_SUB>
<DEPRN_RESERVE>0</DEPRN_RESERVE>
<COST>-89983.26</COST>
<YTD_DEP>702</YTD_DEP>
</G_SUB>
- <G_SUB>
<DEPRN_RESERVE>-18.96</DEPRN_RESERVE>
<COST>0</COST>
<YTD_DEP>702</YTD_DEP>
</G_SUB>
</LIST_G_SUB>
<D_GL_ACCOUNT>81216</D_GL_ACCOUNT>
<D_COMP_CODE>118</D_COMP_CODE>
<D_COST_CENTER>000</D_COST_CENTER>
<D_LOCATION>KANNUR.CHALODE.NONE.CHALODE.NONE</D_LOCATION>
<D_AS_COST><89,983.26></D_AS_COST>
<D_AS_DEPRN_RSV><18.96></D_AS_DEPRN_RSV>
<AS_COST>-89983.26</AS_COST>
<AS_RESERVE>-18.96</AS_RESERVE>
</G_TRANSFERS>
- <G_TRANSFERS>
<TO_FROM>1</TO_FROM>
<GL_ACCOUNT>81216</GL_ACCOUNT>
<COMP_CODE>118</COMP_CODE>
<COST_CENTER>000</COST_CENTER>
<LOCATION>KANNUR CHALODE NONE CHALODE NONE</LOCATION>
<START_DATE>21-JUL-08</START_DATE>
<UNITS>199</UNITS>
<ASSIGNED_TO />
<CCID>6705</CCID>
- <LIST_G_SUB>
- <G_SUB>
<DEPRN_RESERVE>18.87</DEPRN_RESERVE>
<COST>0</COST>
<YTD_DEP>702</YTD_DEP>
</G_SUB>
- <G_SUB>
<DEPRN_RESERVE>0</DEPRN_RESERVE>
<COST>89533.34</COST>
<YTD_DEP>702</YTD_DEP>
</G_SUB>
</LIST_G_SUB>
<D_GL_ACCOUNT>81216</D_GL_ACCOUNT>
<D_COMP_CODE>118</D_COMP_CODE>
<D_COST_CENTER>000</D_COST_CENTER>
<D_LOCATION>KANNUR.CHALODE.NONE.CHALODE.NONE</D_LOCATION>
<D_AS_COST>89,533.34</D_AS_COST>
<D_AS_DEPRN_RSV>18.87</D_AS_DEPRN_RSV>
<AS_COST>89533.34</AS_COST>
<AS_RESERVE>18.87</AS_RESERVE>
</G_TRANSFERS>
- <G_TRANSFERS>
<TO_FROM>1</TO_FROM>
<GL_ACCOUNT>81216</GL_ACCOUNT>
<COMP_CODE>118</COMP_CODE>
<COST_CENTER>000</COST_CENTER>
<LOCATION>KANNUR CHALODE MW BB NONE CHALODE MW BB NONE</LOCATION>
<START_DATE>21-JUL-08</START_DATE>
<UNITS>1</UNITS>
<ASSIGNED_TO />
<CCID>6705</CCID>
- <LIST_G_SUB>
- <G_SUB>
<DEPRN_RESERVE>.09</DEPRN_RESERVE>
<COST>0</COST>
<YTD_DEP>702</YTD_DEP>
</G_SUB>
- <G_SUB>
<DEPRN_RESERVE>0</DEPRN_RESERVE>
<COST>449.92</COST>
<YTD_DEP>702</YTD_DEP>
</G_SUB>
</LIST_G_SUB>
<D_GL_ACCOUNT>81216</D_GL_ACCOUNT>
<D_COMP_CODE>118</D_COMP_CODE>
<D_COST_CENTER>000</D_COST_CENTER>
<D_LOCATION>KANNUR.CHALODE MW BB.NONE.CHALODE MW BB.NONE</D_LOCATION>
<D_AS_COST>449.92</D_AS_COST>
<D_AS_DEPRN_RSV>0.09</D_AS_DEPRN_RSV>
<AS_COST>449.92</AS_COST>
<AS_RESERVE>.09</AS_RESERVE>
</G_TRANSFERS>
</LIST_G_TRANSFERS>
<DPIS>30-JUN-08</DPIS>
<ASSET_CATEGORY>BT</ASSET_CATEGORY>
</G_ASSET_TRANS>
We are trying to use XML Publisher to create an Asset transfer report. The element TO_FROM=0 denotes the From part of the asset transfer, the TO_FROM=1 denotes the To part of the asset transfer.. in this case we have a asset 200 units transfered 199 and 1 to two locations..in out rtf we are getting only the first line i.e.199..we have begin the group by <?for-each-group@section:G_ASSET_TRANS;ASSET_NUMBER?><?variable@incontext:G2;current-group()?>. In the units column we are giving <?$G2/LIST_G_TRANSFERS/G_TRANSFERS[./TO_FROM=1]/UNITS?>
Edited by: user648077 on Nov 3, 2008 10:26 PM

Hi Srini,
Thanks for the help..we got it resolved at out end.. we added another group <?for-each-group:$G2/LIST_G_TRANSFERS/G_TRANSFERS[./TO_FROM=1];LIST_G_SUB?><?variable@incontext:G3;current-group()?> and then used it in the units column...<?$G3/UNITS?>
Thanks
Ramanathan

Mass Asset Transfer

We need to transfer 11,000 assets to a new company code. I've created the worklist in AR01, created the substitution rules to populate the new cost centers, and processed through AR31. Does anybody know what the following errors are referencing or why we're receiving them?
1. Error in sub transient work item 'Intercompany Asset Transfer' (Message # SWF_RUN817)
2. Asset 1010 INTERN-00001-1 is incomplete, check asset (I think this one is related to a a missing required field).
3. Error handling for work item 229478 (Message no. SWF_RUN630)

Hi Darrin,
I had a similar requirement in my project as well. Besides others one of the options that exists in such cases is creating a worklist and then a substitution rule . But we felt it was best to apply the OSS note no 851357. It then worked for us, maybe you could try it too.
Thanks
Sharmila

Depreciation Problem after asset transfer

Hi All,
During our month end, our user did the asset transfer within the same company code. When he runs the Depreciation through AFAB, the new asset is not showing any depreciation for current month, where as Old asset has some balance. I checked the new asset and in the Depreciation area, the Dep. start date is showing as 05/02/08. We changed the date to 03/02/2008 through AS02, but still it is not showing up any depreciation. I do have following questions.
1. Can we transfer asset before depreciation run or run the depreciation first and then do the transfer. In our case we already transfered, so how do we fix it.
2. I wonder how it is getting the Odep. start date as 05/04/08. Is it defined some where in Depreciation key/
3. Can we run depreciation excluding that new asset. If so, how it can be done
Please let me know if anyone has come across this, and how to solve this.
This is an urgent.
Thanks
Kris

Hi Muriel,
I am very sure you did not do it correctly. Now, this is the step to follow:
1. First adjust the APC value to what it should be using transaction code ABSO. Once you're sure that your Acquisition Value is correct, the next thing to do is
2. To execute transaction AFAB(Depreciation Run) in "Test Mode". This would give you the depreciation that would be posted by the system asset by asset. This are under three main headings namely: "Planned", "Posted" & "To Post".
Depending on your depreciation method, the "Planned" figure gives the total amount the system would post for the financial year whilst the "Posted" figure gives you what has been posted up to date and the "To Post" figure gives you what would be charged to the P&L when you run AFAB in Production mode.
Your Net Book Value(NBV) at the end of the depreciation run for say November 2006 would be NBV = APC - (Posted + To Post)
If Posted + To Post (i.e. Accummulated Depreciation) is more or less than what you expect it to be from you manual calculation, you then need to adjust the figure upward or downward depending on the situation at hand. That is when you now need to
3. Perform Manual Depreciation Adjustment using either transaction code ABAA or ABMA.
You can then use AW01N to view the asset. You would be able to see the different postings made. Do not forget to run AFAB in production mode. If not, no depreciation value would be posted and your report would still be wrong.
I hope the above helps.
Do not forget to award the points please.
Regards,
Jacob
Message was edited by:
Jacob Taiwo
Message was edited by:
Jacob Taiwo

Capital Cenvat iisue in case of asset transfer

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