CMR - how to deal with no child records

Hi,
I have developed a number of CMP EJBs, created relationships, mapped and deployed OK using WSAD v5 + DB2 backend. When I call findByPrimaryKey on the parent in the one to many, everything works unless there are no child records. The server generates a ObjectNotFoundException and the data in the parent record is not accessible.
TIA for any advice.
Jim

Don't you love it when Sun does an implementation that sucks, does not document it properly, and does not even bother to answer your questions in the forum... You'd think that after these many years they would have gotten it right. I am also having a similar problem and I have seen it on many postings, but no answers... :P

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How to deal with delete record in generic delta of generic datasource

Hi,
Anyone can give me suggestion about the delete record in generic delta of generic data. I need extract data with a generic datasource and hope deleted record in datasource also can be "delete" in next delta extraction. I do a test with generic delta. It seem that the delete record can not be updated in ODS. but updated record can be updated in next delta extraction.
How dose BW generic delta deal with the deleted record with generic delta mechanisim? Or how can I use generic delta mechanisim to realize that BW "delete" the deleted record of source system in ODS with delta extraction?
Thanks in advance!
Billy

Delete is not supported in delta mechanism of generic delta extractor. You will need to add a workaround for that.
- Capture the deleted records somewhere (maybe enhance the txn deleting the record so the key is written to a Z table). Take these records to BW and manipulate the recordmode to affect deletion of corresponding record from ODS.
- If your generic delta is based on FM, and if the 'delete' is captured in change document tables, add the logic to check change document tables whether any records are deleted, and if yes, send those to BW with appropriate recordmode to achieve deletion.

How to deal with generated programs in eCATT SAPGUI recording?

Hi experts and professionals,
I am trying to automate testing of our solutions by eCATTs and so far i have not been able to find solution for following problem.
Whole test scenario is very simple:
Check InfoProvider data (query, lookup, listcube,...)
Create DAP on InfoProvider
Archive InfoProvider
Check InfoProvider data (query, lookup, listcube,...) again
Compare results from step 1. and 4. (must match)
Reload archived data
Check InfoProvider data (query, lookup, listcube,...) again
Compare results from step 1. and 7. (must match)
As you can see, one of the required test steps is to check InfoProvider's data in transaction LISTCUBE.
But transaction LISTCUBE generates its program "name" every time it is executed and
I am struggling to find a way how to deal with these generated programs in eCATT SAPGUI recording.
Key is that solution must be generic and work for all SAP BW releases from 7.0 upwards
(having in mind that LISTCUBE can read NLS data from SAP BW 7.3 release).
Error description from eCATT log:
Screen Check Error: Expected Transaction: LISTCUBE, Actual Transaction: LISTCUBE.
Expected Program: GP0KOZE7EFIUBN10MZUFWX90W80, Actual Program: GPBP24INA6VV77SL0XKU5NA642O.
Expected Screen Number: 1000, Actual Screen Number: 1000.
There Is Probably an Error in SAPGUI recording.
ExceptionClass:CX_ECATT_APL_CAPTURE ExceptionId:SCREEN_CHECK_ERROR
RaisingClass:CL_APL_ECATT_LINE_INTERPRETER Include:CL_APL_ECATT_LINE_INTERPRETER=CM00J Line:443
Is there any way how to avoid program check in eCATT script?
Anything that would help me to find solution will be greatly appreciated.
Best Regards,
Igor

Dear Igor,
Your issue is caused by the "screen check" which eCATT processes here.
In General this screen check is a very usefull activity, since is ensures that only those screens are processed by automation, which initially where recorded. This should ensure as much as possible to invoke only intended activities.
Remember, that the driver of the screen flow is still the automated transaction program ( but not the test tool). So application logic decides which screen is send next.
Using screen check the test tool tries to ensure that menu items and buttons and other activities are only automated when the tool "believes" to work on the intended screen.
For generic test scripts and often in context of generated programs the screen check might hurt a bit.
To overcome this, one might try to make the check dynamic (as Sheetal suggests correctly).
If here the name of program cannot be determined for any reason, one can use another method and do following:
- Change the value of ProcessedScreen-Active to 'R'
This will disable/skip the screen-check for this ProcessedScreen.
Sure the solution includes a certain risk, since not checking the correct screen to appear might lead to automation of actions with not desired impact.
Maybe this can improve your solution.
Kind Regards
Jens

How to deal with the rejected stock if it is rjected by QC

Dear All,
please let me know how to deal with the rejected stock from Quality point of view.i.e., for incoming materails and Finished if returned from customer
Regards,
P.Vijaya

hi
if material is rejected for incoming material then you can create Notification for incoming material due to you can return back material with print for that you have to record defects in result recording. in T-code QM02 if result is recorded with defects. or you can create with Qm01.against vendor
if material is returned from costumer you can create inspection lot for that for that you have to maintained inspection type 06 in material master. you can result record for that you can create notification for that. or rework for this material as per quality check or can scrap
if have any problem please come back
regards
Pravin

How to deal with 0...n or 1...n mappings?

Hi all,
I'm relatively new to BPM. I've already made several processes that are working fine. However, I'm now stuck because, for the life of me, I'm not able to understand how to deal with data mappings of nodes of a cardinality greater than 1...1.
I'm used to dealing with 0...n inputs of Web Services in Webdynpro Java and CAF Application services, using java code... but I just don't get how to deal with these in a BPM data mapping scenario.
Let's say you have a Web Service whose input is a node called "Employee", where you can add n Employee objects, like this:
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      FirstName: String
      LastName: String
How do you:
1- map a 0...n context node from a Web Dynpro or Web Service output, already containing several employees, into this Employee 0...n WS input node?
2- map a 0...n context node from a Web Dynpro or Web Service output, containing NO employees, into this Employee 0...n WS input node, without getting an error and the BPM crashing because it says the employee element is not found?
Hopefully someone can help me with this, because I'm about to go the way of calling the web service n times, one employee at a time, instead of one time with a Employee object with n registries in it.
Thanks!

Hi Abhijeet,
i think i should have mentioned this earlier. My Employee node is inside another node. So, the actual input structure of the WS is this:
InputValues (1...1)
   Employees (0..n)
      FirstName: String
      LastName: String
This scenario works OK in BPM when mapping a 0..n node using deep copy as Jocelyn explained, but I still doesn't work if I want to pass an empty (not null) Employees array.
If I go to the WS Navigator and run this WS with the following parameters, it runs ok (I get an output message saying no employee was selected, which is how it should work):
InputValues - "Is null" checkbox not activated.
   Employees - "Skip" checkbox not activated
      FirstName - "Skip" checkbox activated
      LastName - "Skip" checkbox activated
However, if instead of activating the checkbox of, say, "FirstName", I enter a "" value, I get an error from the WS saying that's not a vaild first name, which is also how it should work.
In java code, I would just pass an empty InputValues object to the WS, but I'm not sure how to do this in a BPM without it being considered null, and without having to set on of its String-child values to "".
Do you know how to achieve this?

How to deal with this problem?

How to deal with this problem?
We plan to use Oracle Coherence (In Memory Data Grid) for a large-scale application. In order to keep the database table data in Coherence caches, we will create all the corresplonding Java objects (entities) and construct the persistence system using JPA/EclipseLink+JDBC. In this way, any in-memory object update will be persisted to the corresponding database tables.
The problem is that some existing application codes are updating these database tables directly now. If the direct-database-table update is not permmited in the persistence environment, we have to discard most of the existing application scripts.
I want to know, in this situation, should I discard most of the existing scripts?
Are there any other solutions?

Allowing writes from both cache & DB is possible with its own set of issues.
The main issue to consider is conflicts from updates on same record via both cache and DB. If your caches are write-through the conflict decreases - but then cache writes become slower. If your caches are write-behind potentially the older cache update will overwrite the latest DB update. Now you are back to Database 101 -- timestamps, versions, etc...
If you use a DB trigger to initiate the resync request you might want to distinguish whether the update has come from the cache-store (in which case, you may choose to do nothing), or if the update was from the 'existing apps', etc...
If you choose to inject the resync logic at the application code level - you have the usual sourcecode issues - can you modify the code, is all the DB code localized, what options do you have to link with Coherence functionality (DLL, external proc, webservice, etc), etc... Naturally though, if you have to make substantial changes to signal a resync....you might consider taking the extra step and change the code to write to the cache.

How you deal with the situation if the vendor/supplier is also a customer ?

Dear All,
Could you please help me with the idea on how to deal with the suppliers/vendors who also are customers to you in MM?
Thanks in advance,
Ranjan

It depends what you are intentions are..
However
1. Create a customer master record for that vendor that is also a customer.
2. Enter Vendor number in Vendor field in control data-customer master record.
3. Enter customer number in Customer field in Control data- vendor master record
Finally, Check "Clrg with vend." field or "Clrg with cust." field

How to deal with deadlock on wwv_flow_data table when http server times out

There are some threads about a deadlock on the wwv_flow_data table. None of them contain a real explanation for this behaviour. In my case I will try to explain what I think is happening. Maybe it helps somebody who is hitting the same matter.
In my case with APEX 3.2.1 I am navigating from one page to another. Doing this APEX will lock the table wwv_flow_data. As soon as the other page is shown the lock will be released. But now this other page contains a bad performing query (standaard report region). After 5 minutes the http server (modplsql) will time out and present the message "No response from the application server" on the screen. In the meanwhile the query is still running on the database server and the lock stays on the wwv_flow_data table.
Normal user behaviour will be that the user will use the back button to return to the previous page and tries it again to navigate to the other page or
the user will try to refresh the page with the bad performing query.
And voila now you will have a deadlock on the wwv_flow_data table since a second session is trying to do the same thing while the first hasn't finished yet.
How to deal with it?
First of all. Have a good look at the bad performing query. Maybe you can improve it that it will succeed before the http server will timeout.
In my case the 11gr1 optimizer couldn't handle a subquery factoring clause in the best way. After changing it back to a classical inline query the problem was solved.
Secondly you could increase the timeout parameter of the http server. Although this not the best way.
Maybe it would better if APEX in a next version would release the lock on the table wwv_flow_date earlier or do a rollback just before the moment that the http server is timing out.
regards,
Mathieu Meeuwissen

Hello Shmoove,
I saw your reply here and you probably understand the problems the HTTP 100 response may cause.
I am trying to send image that was taken by getSnapshot. The problem is that the server respond with this HTTP 100 message.
I suspect that the reason that my server doesn't recognize the file that I'm sending from J2me is that the "server to client" response to the 100 message comes after the second message of (see what the TCPIP viewer shows down here):
POST /up01/up02.aspx HTTP/1.1
Content-Type: multipart/form-data; boundary=xxxxyyyyzzz
Connection: Keep-Alive
Content-length: 6294
User-Agent: UNTRUSTED/1.0
Host: szekely.dnsalias.com:80
Transfer-Encoding: chunked
400: Client to Server (126 bytes)
78
--xxxxyyyyzzz
Content-Disposition: form-data; name="pic"; filename="david.jpg"
Content-Type: application/octet-stream
400: Connected to Server
400: Server to Client (112 bytes)
HTTP/1.1 100 Continue
Server: Microsoft-IIS/5.1
Date: Wed, 23 Mar 2005 00:47:02 GMT
X-Powered-By: ASP.NET
Any help will be appreciated,
David

How to deal with OpenCL grey out issue.

First off, I'm not native english speaker.
I have Nvidia GeForce 550 Ti video card, and its support OpenCL v1.1.
I'm also face a "random" OpenCL grey out issue like other people here, but I found the "issue" and how to deal with.
open a command windows (using WinKey + R, and type cmd <enter>)
type "cd C:\Program Files\Adobe\Adobe Photoshop CS6 (64 Bit)" <enter>
type "sniffer_gpu" <enter> -->> to check your GPU has OpenCL in Photoshop?
When GPU is in power-saving mode (core running in 51Mhz, using MSI Afterburner monitor), I running sniffer_gpu, got this report
C:\Program Files\Adobe\Adobe Photoshop CS6 (64 Bit)>sniffer_gpu
Device: 0000000000328D68 has video RAM(MB): 1023
Vendor string:    NVIDIA Corporation
Renderer string: GeForce GTX 550 Ti/PCIe/SSE2
Version string:   3.0.0
OpenGL version as determined by Extensionator...
OpenGL Version 3.0
Has NPOT support: TRUE
Has Framebuffer Object Extension support: TRUE
OpenGL ok
Return code: 1
C:\Program Files\Adobe\Adobe Photoshop CS6 (64 Bit)>
No OpenCL support
Then, I switch GPU back to normal status (core running at 900Mhz)
C:\Program Files\Adobe\Adobe Photoshop CS6 (64 Bit)>sniffer_gpu
Device: 00000000001F8D68 has video RAM(MB): 1023
Vendor string:    NVIDIA Corporation
Renderer string: GeForce GTX 550 Ti/PCIe/SSE2
Version string:   3.0.0
OpenGL version as determined by Extensionator...
OpenGL Version 3.0
Has NPOT support: TRUE
Has Framebuffer Object Extension support: TRUE
OpenGL ok
OpenCL ok, version=1.1 CUDA 4.2.1
Return code: 3
C:\Program Files\Adobe\Adobe Photoshop CS6 (64 Bit)>
OpenCL support !!
Nowadays, most of new GPUs were support power-saving, but when sniffer_gpu running at GPU power-saving state, the OpenCL computing report maybe "time-out", cause the detector "guess" the GPU does not support OpenCL. This is why many people says "OpenCL" sometimes work, sometimes grey-out.
I hope this bug can be fixed, or at least people can understand how to "enable OpenCL everytime when you launch photoshop".
Bye.

Do check the following link
http://blogs.oracle.com/soabpm/2010/01/soa_suite_11g_weblogictransact.html

How to deal with "Error 1001. The specified service already exists" when install a service using installer package?

Hi everybody,
I wrote a "Class Library" project which is a service using Visual Stodio 2008 recently, then tried to use a Visual Studio 2008
Setup Project to install it.
Here is what I did for the "Class Library":
1. Finish the program.cs, Service.cs
2. Add Installer
3. Change the serviceInstaller so that "StartType" to be Aotumatic
4. Change the ServiceProcessInstaller2 so that "Account" to be LocalSystem
5.
6. Click in F5 (Start Debugging)
Here is what I did for the Setup Project:
1. Add the exe file built from the "Class Library" project to the Application Folder
2. On the Custom Action Editor, add the exe file from 1 to Install and Commit
3. Change the property of the project so that "RemovePreviousVersion" to be true
4. Click on F6(Build Solution)
Then I tried to run the msi file from the built of the Setup Project. Because I modified the two projects serveral times, I uninstalled the Class Library using "Control Panel->Add or Remove Programs" before I reinstall. Two things I notived:
1. After unstall, the registry was not cleaned up about the installed program
2. After several rounds install/uninstall, I got "Error 1001. The specified service already exists"
My questions are:
1. How to cleanup the registry when uninstall a program?
2. How to deal with the "Error 1001. The specified service already exists"?
3. Did I do anytbing wrong with the "Class Library" or the "Setup Project"?
Thanks a lot!
Helen

Hi Simon, not a problem!
I spent some more time on this and here are few more notes:
it is called Major Upgrade, when you are installing new version of the product upon a previous one and
MSI supports 2 strategies:
Strategy 1. Install a new version and uninstall previous one. (Install a new version right upon previously installed version (file merging is performed based on dll version number) and the delete previously
installed files)
Strategy 2. Uninstall previous version and install a new one (Delete all previous files and install from scratch new files.)
From the first look it seems that 1st strategy is weird and buggy. But, remember, MSI is great because it's transactional!!! That means that if once some of the phases (Installation, Uninstallation, Rollback, Comit) fails, your machine
will be reverted to the previous state and it'll be still functional.
Let's consider both strategies:
Consider you have installed product_v1.msi and you want to install product_v2.msi.
Strategy 1
1. MSI engine copies files from Product_v1 directory to TEMP directory
2. MSI engine merges files based on the assembly version (between v1 and v2)
3. Once merging is completed successfully it removes files in TEMP (RemoveExistingProducts action triggers it) and you got product_v2 installed, otherwise if it fails MSI engine revert machine to V1 and copies previous files from TEMP.
Strategy 2
1. MSI engine tottaly removes all files from v1.
2. MSI engine installs v2 files and if something goes wrong you cannot revert back, because RemoveExistingProducts allready worked out and MSI doesn't have files to revert machine back
I recommend to everybody to use Strategy 1 and leverage MSI transaction functionality. And you can set this strategies by defining sequence of RemoveExistingProducts action. See more info
here. So, I think it's not even a bug in VS as I said in the upper post it is default recommened behaviour.
AND, you got "Error 1001. The specified service already exists"
because if we follow Strategy 1 MSI engine tries to install Windows Service on top of the existing service and OF COURSE it fails MSI engine (StopServices, DeleteServices actions are executed before actual
installation and they look at ServiceControl table). In order to stop service first and delete them you have to fill ServiceContol table of the MSI (and then StopServices, DeleteServices actions will recognize what to they have to stop
and delete), like this:
*clip*clip*clip*
' see http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/desktop/aa371634(v=vs.85).aspx for more info
' Update the Service Entry to stop and delete service while uninstalling
query = "INSERT INTO ServiceControl (ServiceControl, Name, Event, Arguments, Wait, Component_) VALUES ('MAD_Service', 'Service name', '160', '', '1', '"
+ componentName + "')"
Set view = database.OpenView(query)
: CheckError
view.Execute : CheckError
' Update the Service Entry to stop and delete service while installing
query = "INSERT INTO ServiceControl (ServiceControl, Name, Event, Arguments, Wait, Component_) VALUES ('MAD2_Service', 'Service name', '10', '', '1', '"
+ componentName + "')"
Set view = database.OpenView(query)
: CheckError
view.Execute : CheckError
*clip*clip*clip*
We can uninstall service first by following Strategy 2, but then we lose transactional support.
So, Simon did I encourage you to change your code a bit?:)
And, btw, if you don't want to change the strategy, please don't rely on SequenceID in MSI table, it can be change, you have to get the at the runtime.
Hope it will help to everybody!
See also more advanced explanation of how MSI works
here.
Truly yours, Marat

How to deal with credentials for external applications using a Java Client/

Hi Guys,
This is the case. I am integrating an external application with an ADF Application. I have implemented some programmatic ViewObjects that are being filled up by a REST Java Client Wrapper. Everything is working fine but the issue is that the credentials the wrapper is using are hard coded inside the java class. I am thinking to ask for the credentials at the beginning of my taskflow and then store them somewhere and use them then to create my client wrapper (passing them in the constructor).
However, I don't know if my approach is good and I would like you to share your experiences or how to deal with this.
Regards

You can use Credential Store Framework to store the credentials securely in the weblogic server instead of hardcoding in the java class.
The Credential Store Framework:
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Check the documentation on CSF API -
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E29505_01/core.1111/e10043/devcsf.htm
Major Steps -
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3. In jazn-data.xml give permissions to access CSF key and map

How to deal with payment of vendor to us (credit notes I guess)

Normally I use F07 for outgoing payments, it's linked to vendors, but how to deal with incoming payments of vendors?
We got paid two invoices(credit notes I guess) and I want to put them under the right vendor, but how do I do it?
I can't use F07 I think because I need to use positive amounts (for normal purchase invoices) and can't use negative amounts in this transaction. F08 is for ingoing payment but that session is linked to customers I thought..not for vendors?
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whith F-02 it is possible I noticed.

How to deal with file(for example .xml)? what format of dir should be?

I'd like to operate the file in disk, and want to use relative directory?
How to deal with file dir? what format of dir should be?

Hi Kamlesh,
Thanks for your response.
Actually, In the "Process External Bank Statement" window, i see that there are few entries which is for the previous year and which has not been reconciled. I have never worked practically on BRS and hence, i am scared to make any changes in the clients database without being confident on what i am doing. I need to reconcile for one of their Bank a/c for the month of April '08. I have the copy of the statements for the month ending 31st Mar 08 and 30th Apr 08. The closing balances are as below:
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30/04/08 - 3100000.00
Now my OB for Bank a/c for April '08 in SAP is 2300000.00 Dr.
When i go to External Bank Reconciliation - Selection Criteria Screen (Manual Reconciliation), here are the detail that i enter:
Last Balance: INR -7,000,000.00000 (Grayed out by the system)
Ending Balance: INR -3,100,000.00000 (Entered by me)
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"Reconciliation Bank Statement" Screen opens up and shows the below balances in the screen:
Cleared Book Balance: INR -7,000,000.00000
Statement Ending Balance: INR -3,100,000.00000
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Could you please help me solve my issue as to what needs to be done or could you also get me some links from where i can get few documents for processing External Bank Reconciliations?
That will be of a great help for me. I need steps as to what needs to be done first and then the next so that i can arrive at the correct closing balance for the month April '08.
Thanks in Advance....
Regards,
Kaushal

Organizational unit transfers ,how to deal with the person in it ?

Hi,All,I need your help!
if an organizational unit has been transfered to another upper organizational unit ,and there are already persons assigned to different positions of it,so how to deal with this problem?are those person's IT 0000,0001should be changed too?and how to maintain this kind of change?is a personnel action necessary?or there is some other more efficient way for it?

Hi
In IT0001 You have a Position which is linked to a Org unit. If you want to change the org units reporting relationship then you have to change it in OM by creating a new relationship with the upper org unit.
All the person are assigned to position so nothing needs to be done in PA.
Reward points if useful.
Regards

IMac SSD full - how to deal with the two drives

Greetings all,
I've been using an iMac i7 with two drives SSC and HDD. Recently, I've been having issues with the SSD being close to full. I use it for applications only, although some apps need lots of space (iTunes, iMovie, Photoshop, etc.) I use Lightroom and have all the images on the spinning drive. Does anyone know how to deal with this issue? Any way I can move the music from iTunes to the separate drive, or any way to figure out what exactly is using most of my space?
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erlkonig

Here's some utilities for analyzing disk space:
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GrandPerspective
OmniDiskSweeper
WhatSize
You might want to consider putting your home directory on the HDD.
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CMR - how to deal with no child records

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