Howto block p2p traffic of clients connected to the same ssid on different wlc

Hi all,
I use two wlc 4400 (4.2.x version) with a mobility domain and one ssid, both wlc are connected to a cisco l2 switch infrastructure. On the wlc I use the p2p blocking action 'drop' (http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/wireless/controller/5.2/configuration/guide/c52wlan.html#wp1209597) to isolate the clients from each other. Does anybody know if only unicast traffic is blocked or also multicast and broadcast traffic like arp requests?
Concerning blocking p2p traffic of clients connected to the same ssid but different controllers I found the following statement in the LAP FAQs (http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/wireless/ps430/products_qanda_item09186a00806a4da3.shtml):
===
Q. In autonomous APs, Public Secure Packet Forwarding (PSPF) is used to avoid client devices associated to this AP from inadvertently sharing files with other client devices on the wireless network. Is there any equivalent feature in Lightweight APs?
A. The feature or the mode that performs the similar function of PSPF in lightweight architecture is called peer-to-peer blocking mode. Peer-to-peer blocking mode is actually available with the controllers that manage the LAP. If this mode is disabled on the controller (which is the default setting), it allows the wireless clients to communicate with each other through the controller. If the mode is enabled, it blocks the communication between clients through the controller. It only works among the APs that have joined to the same controller. When enabled, this mode does not block wireless clients terminated on one controller from the ability to get to wireless clients terminated on a different controller, even in the same mobility group.
===
Does anybody know what's the best practise to prevent this inter wlc client traffic? I already read about using acls on the wlc dynamic interfaces, or private vlans on the l2 switch vlans where the dynamic interfaces are connected to. Is it allowed to completely isolate the wlc from each other on these dynamic interfaces with acls or private vlans or do the wlc need to see each other on this interfaces (e.g. heart beat)?
Many thanks in advance,
Thorsten

Hi Sasha,Thorsten
The bug is Junked and I believe which is what you are running into with your tests:
CSCtr60787    WLC P2P Blocking Set to Forward-UpStream Doesn't Work.
Bugtoolkit : http://tools.cisco.com/Support/BugToolKit/action.do?hdnAction=searchBugs
To answer your original query :
ACL is only solution to block client communication on same ssid between 2 wlcs. 5508 works better with ACLs then 44xx platform.
ARP requests will be forwarded to upstream router just like any other traffic. WLC won't proxy arp for clients on same vlan.
Gateway arp's I believe should be handled by WLC . ( Don't quote me on this but I am pretty sure it is ) ..If it was not, then how would client know about gw ?
Multicast traffic is not applicable for p2p.
Your ACL can be as simple as this for the scenario :
WLC 1 - clientvlan = 10
WLC 2 - clientvlan = 10
and you want to restrict users from wlc1-wlc1, wlc1-wlc2, wlc2-wlc2 for same vlan10.
Basically in that case the ACL should look like on both WLCs :
1. Permit statement to talk to gateway.
2. Deny to subnet.
3. Permit all.
4. If DHCP/DNS other services are on same subnet then you would need to add a permit
statement before the deny.
5. Attach the ACL to SSID or dymanic interface.
Thanks..Salil
CSCtr60787    WLC P2P Blocking Set to Forward-UpStream Doesn't Work.

Similar Messages

  • Multiple Backend Connected to the same SRM client.

    Hello All,
    We have an interesting requirement.
    We have an SRM 5.0 client with R/3 4.7 backend. Now we need to add another instance of ECC 5.0 to be connected to the same SRM client ( either on the same org stucture or a different org structure).
    I am facing difficulty in doing the material replication.
    I have the inbound queue in SRM blocked and I and getting the error message LOGSYS_FOR_GUID_CHANGED.
    This lead me to the notes 588701 and 765018. But I am not sure this would actually solve the problem.
    I have also seen the following thread which indicated that one CRM client should point to only one R/3 instance.
    Downloading basic R/3 objects into CRM with brand new systems
    Has any one so for integrated multiple backends to the same SRM client? What was your approch to the requirement?  Inviting your views and opinions to this issue.
    Thanks in advance.
    Ajith

    Hi
    You can implement corrections in the note 765018 as you mentioned in your post.
    We have done the same thing.  In case of multiple backends and also if systems are refreshed with other instances (client copy), the logical system ID will be changed.
    So we need to run the report mentioned in the said note and run the replication.
    Rgds
    Reddy

  • Multiple Backends Connected to the same SRM client.

    Hello All,
    We have an interesting requirement.
    We have an SRM 5.0 client with R/3 4.7 backend. Now we need to add another instance of ECC 5.0 to be connected to the same SRM client ( either on the same org stucture or a different org structure).
    I am facing difficulty in doing the material replication.
    I have the inbound queue in SRM blocked and I and getting the error message LOGSYS_FOR_GUID_CHANGED.
    This lead me to the notes 588701 and 765018. But I am not sure this would actually solve the problem.
    I have also seen the following thread which indicated that one CRM client should point to only one R/3 instance.
    Downloading basic R/3 objects into CRM with brand new systems
    Has any one so for integrated multiple backends to the same SRM client? What was your approch to the requirement? Inviting your views and opinions to this issue.
    Thanks in advance.
    Ajith

    Hi
    You can implement corrections in the note 765018 as you mentioned in your post.
    We have done the same thing.  In case of multiple backends and also if systems are refreshed with other instances (client copy), the logical system ID will be changed.
    So we need to run the report mentioned in the said note and run the replication.
    Rgds
    Reddy

  • Can not ping, samba or else to the client which connected to the same WRVS4400N router

    I buy a WRVS4400N router. Setup to surf internet successfully.
    But each client can't ping, samba, file sharing to each connect to WRVS4400N.
    In the router admin page. We can see each client connect to the router.
    I have one SSID only. And setup the
    Wireless Isolation (between SSID w/o VLAN)
    and
    Wireless Isolation (within SSID)
    both to disable.
    And have reboot it several times.

    Please post the output of:
    lspci -knn|grep -iA2 net
    How are you attempting to search & connect to your router?
    Please post the exact commands used and the exact terminal output resulting from these commands.

  • Is it possible to see what traffic my clients made on the time capsule?

    Hello!
    is it possible to see on my macbook what traffic my clients made on the time capsule?
    With airport utillity 6.2 i cannot see this!
    sorry for my english and thanks for help

    If you control-click on the Time Machine icon and select "Browse Other Time Machine Disks" but don't see the other backups, try this: Look in the "sidebar" of a Finder window for your Time Capsule.  If you see it, select it, then look for the Time Capsule's disk (probably called "Data" if you didn't rename it).  Double-click that to mount it.  Now try again to control-click on the Time Machine Dock icon.

  • View data in client B from client A in the same SID without a valid logon?

    Hi Folks
    We are planning on upgrading our 4.6C system to ERP 6.0, and are initialy considering having two clients in the same sandbox SID.  One would be for the developers to perform code remediation checks (client A), and one would contain a copy of production data for performing testing of functionality over live data (client B).
    Would it be possible to view data in client B from client A in the same system without a valid logon to client B or RFC connection to client B from client A?   For example via the use on an ABAP program to SQL the database?
    I know one can use transactions like SM30/SM31 to view, compare, and adjust data between clients, but this requires an RFC connection and valid logon to the target client.
    Regards
    Kevin.

    Hi Kevin.
    >
    Kevin McLatchie wrote:
    > Would it be possible to view data in client B from client A in the same system without a valid logon to client B or RFC connection to client B from client A?   For example via the use on an ABAP program to
    Short answer: yes.
    If someone has the right to write and execute ABAP reports on the system he is able to access the data of all clients. So I don't think that this setup is advisable. Don't mix development and production data in one system.
    Best regards,
    Jan

  • Is there any way I can control which specific access point I connect (and stay connected) to from amongst a set of access points with the same SSID?

    I'm working from a boat in a harbor in which the ISP has deployed numerous access points around the periphery.  All the access points share the same SSID and each is configured to use either channel 1, 6 or 11.   From my location, there are over a dozen of these access points "visible" (based on the the output of WiFi Scanner) with a range of RSSI and S/N values that vary over time.
    The ISP has told me that the quality of my connection should be "perfectly fine" for any access point with an RSSI value better than -75, but I know from experience that my connection quality is miserable (i.e. < 50Kbps download) for almost all of these, including those with RSSI values better than -75.  There is at least one exception, however, which gives me on the order of 2Mbps download, which is "great" in this context.
    I've tried using a more powerful USB antenna plugged into my MacBook Air (mid 2011), but as far as I can tell, it really doesn't make much difference.  Neither does my location within the boat.   The overriding factor seems to be which access point I happen to connect up to.
    I should point out that the closest access points are about 75 yards away, with many of them being several hundred yards away or more.  I'm guessing that even though the signal strength of some of the distant access points is causing them to get "chosen" some times, the results are unacceptable due to the distance.
    I'm hoping that I can determine, through experimentation, which access point(s) provide(s) acceptable performance and then configure my Mac to limit my connection to those points through whatever mechanism I need to use (e.g. channel, MAC id, etc.).

    Establishing a wireless connection with a client computer is left to the access point for various reasons. One reason that your Mac may not connect to the strongest access point is that it may have reached a limit of the number of clients it can serve, leaving it unable to accept a connection with another. The limit may not be very large.
    Suppose that happens, and your Mac establishes a connection with a more distant access point having a weaker signal. Then, suppose a client drops off the network. Doesn't this mean your Mac will switch to the stronger access point? Not necessarily. The throughput delivered to and from your Mac would have to drop below a threshold specified in the AP for it to drop the client, leaving your Mac free to connect with another one. The reason for this is to prevent rapid switching from one AP to another in an area in which two signals are of approximately equal quality. If that were to occur the frequent and repetitive handshaking between the two devices would slow throughput to zero.
    In an environment in which several access points are broadcasting the same SSID, Apple provides no insight as to how it determines which access point to choose. This is the reason I suspect this "choice" is a function of the router, or access point. The connection originates with it, not the Mac.
    Now, what would solve your dilemma would be to determine a way to control the access point with which your Mac connects, by specifying the access point's unique MAC address for example. In this happy circumstance, you could maintain an editable "whitelist" or "blacklist" of the harbor's access points and be able to choose which among them you prefer.
    I do not believe OS X maintains such a record of MAC addresses though, only those of the routers it uses. If I am correct about that, such a solution is unlikely to exist. Don't let that discourage you from searching for one though... I would concentrate on something like "selecting access point by specific MAC address".
    I did find this patent application though:
    Roaming Network Stations Using A Mac Address Identifier To Select New Access Point
    Perhaps it's a start

  • Solaris 8: Multiple primary interfaces connected to the same network

    I have a machine with Solaris 8, and it has multiple interfaces that are connected to the same network which means they all have metric 0 (1 hop) to the default gateway.
    assume:
    e1000g0: 192.168.30.70
    e1000g2: 192.168.30.72
    e1000g4: 192.168.30.74
    e1000g5: 192.168.30.76
    gateway: 192.168.30.65 (Cisco Router)
    However, it seems like despite the fact that they have a direct connection, they seem to be using e1000g0 to access the 192.168.30.0 network to get to the default gateway and then to anywhere else.
    When I send a ping to say, 192.168.30.74 (IP of e1000g4) and capture packets on e1000g0, I see the "echo reply" messages going out of it as opposed to e1000g4 even though e1000g4 is the one receiving the "echo request". This should not happen and these should be completely independent as they should all be advertising a 1 hop to that network
    The outputs from netstat -rn and ifconfig -a are shown in the picture on the link below
    [http://img836.imageshack.us/img836/7308/ifconfignetstathiddenip.jpg]
    This gets even more confusing when I go into the Cisco router and run the command: "show mac address-table" where only the MAC address of e1000g0 is shown for the switch port it's connected to, but not for the other interfaces which are connected to the switch. Yes, all ports are active (no shut) and are pingable.
    Also, the odd thing is that ALL of these individual MACs show up in the router ARP table when the machine comes up, however after sending a ping to one of them, after a certain expiry or whatever period, the MACs disappear from the router ARP table and only the MAC for e1000g0 shows up. The arp table of the solaris machine however shows all the relevant MACs of each port of the router that it's physically connected to (This is actually a Cisco Switch with the advanced IP services imagine and L3 routing turned on)
    Before anyone asks: The setting local-mac-address? setting does NOT exist in my machine and it never has, but it used to work fine. Also, from the ifconfig command, once can tell that all the MAC addresses are fine.
    I need to somehow assign all these interfaces equal priority and make them understand that they're physically connected to the 192.168.30.0 network and there's no need to go through e1000g0 to get to it.
    This is causing a lot of problems as eventually all traffic will end up going through the e1000g0 interface and that will become a bottle neck.
    Please help Thanks in advance

    Ok thanks. That was a useful response.
    I did think about the trunking software that is claimed to be available for Solaris 8, but it's only available if you've got paid support contract. Oracle came and ruined everything re: Sun support which is so expensive now.
    The other confusion is, we never had that OR needed to configure trunking/link aggregation on this machine, so why now?
    Lastly, by your explanation, this should be expected and is "normal" behaviour, which would mean that this machine was always doing this and I only just noticed it this time? I thought if you turn off ipv4 forwarding and router function in the machine, it's every interface for itself. But it's not doing that :(
    So then the question is, Can I force it? I've tried a bunch of things by manipulating the tables and it seems to mess things up where nothing is getting through or it now shifts all the traffic to some other port make the problem no different
    Is there a way to give equal weight to all interfaces for the traffic to go directly through them that is originating at those ports?

  • Client Settings Sharing the Same Priority

    I have a dozen Client Settings and noticed that two of my Client Settings share the same priority (Priority 5) and one of them skips two priorities (10 & 11), see screenshot.  Increasing or decreasing the priority
    on these dose not seem to reset the priority number, i.e. if I decrease #9 it moves to #12 and #12 to #9 and the same if I increase #12.  I was hoping increaseing #12 would reset it to #11 but that's not the case.   The same goes for the two #5's,
    they stay no mater what I do.
    Anyone seen this?  Any thoughts? I do not know if it is effecting anything and the 9/12 ones don't consern me as much as the two 5's do.  I'm not sure which #5 has more priority then the other.

    Hi,
    I recommend you delete the Client Settings then recreate them.
    Below is a workaround for your reference. You’d better call CSS first, as this workaround is not a supported configuration and not eligible for official support.
    Connected to Database CM_XXX.
    Run the following query :
    select * from dbo.clientsettings
    Take the Client agent setting's uniqueid
    Run the following query :
    Update dbo.ClientSettings set Priority=5
    where UniqueID='{A38602E1-AEC1-43F9-B3E1-CF2155099D2E}'
    Check the priority on the console now.
    We
    are trying to better understand customer views on social support experience, so your participation in this
    interview project would be greatly appreciated if you have time.
    Thanks for helping make community forums a great place.

  • The same SSID used at 3 sites and the same vlan for client IP assignment?

    we are deploying 5508 controller and LW APs for wireless IP phone 7925G
    Controller is installed at site A and there are APs and wireless phones at site B and C as well.
    1. can I use the same SSID for all three sites for wireless phones? or have to use 3 distinct SSIDs?
    2. If I can use the same SSID, can I associate one subnet e.g 10.10.131.0/24 for wireless IP phones at 3 sites? (our Cisco UCM is fine with this)
    3. if I have use 3 distinct SSIDs, do I have to assign three subnets for IP phones at three sites?
    thanks for the help!
    Eric

    yes.. this is done by HREAP mode.. the below link will help you out!!
    http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk722/tk809/technologies_configuration_example09186a00807cc3b8.shtml
    That is, by default the WLAN will get pushed to all APs.. so if you have a single wlan then this will broadcast the SSID and the remotre site clients will connect to it..
    Lemme know if this answered your question!!
    Regards
    Surendra

  • I am unable to connect to the Web with Firefox, the firefox site displays on screen, yet I can connect on the same desktop computer to Internet explorer and Opera, what is preventing me from opening the firefox browser

    I am unable to connect to the web on my desktop with Firefox 8, the program displays but will not connect to the Internet, Other browsers Internet Explorer and Opera do connect on the same machine. McAfee is not blocking it, virus checks detect no virus yet yesterday it worked perfectly

    I tried what was suggested by starting in Safe Mode but the problem still exists. I am frustrated as I cannot connect to my Verizon Fios page. I can connect to the Internet with the Firefox Browser and can go to any web site except finding my Verizon Home page.

  • Problems with multiple connections in the same transaction

    Hi all !
              I'm have two questions regarding the way weblogic handles multiple
              connections.
              1) first, I don't understand why weblogic always create a new Managed
              Connection when I'm asking for 2 connection handles on the same connection
              factory and with the same connectionRequestInfo. Isn't it supposed to share
              connections ?
              For instance, the following snippet of code results in the creation of 2
              managed connections:
              ConnHandle conn1 = myCF.getConnection(myRequInfo);
              ConnHandle conn2 = myCF.getConnection(myRequInfo);
              The class corresponding to myRequInfo does implement the equals and hash
              method, so that weblogic's connection manager could use them to check that
              the queried connections are the same, and thus could share a single
              ManagedConnection between multiple connection handles. Apparantly it does
              not do that...
              2) OK, I just let weblogic create the 2 managed connections, but... My use
              of the connections is as part of a transaction. Here is what happens:
              ConnHandle conn1 = myCF.getConnection(myRequInfo);
              // a new managedConn1 is instanciated. the following happens (just a
              description)
              // xar1 = managedConn1.getXAResource()
              // xar1.start(NOFLAGS)
              // I use the conn1 handle
              conn1.close();
              //xar1.end(SUSPEND)
              ConnHandle conn2 = myCF.getConnection(myRequiInfo);
              // a new managed connection managedConn2 is instanciated.
              // xar2 = managedConn2.getXAResource();
              // xar2.start(RESUME)
              // I use conn2 handle
              conn2.close();
              // xar2.end(SUSPEND);
              // my bean returns from the remote invocation
              // the client of the bean asks to commit (using UerTransaction.commit on the
              client side)
              // xar2.end(SUCCESS)
              // xar2.commit(onePhase=true);
              // managedConn2.cleanup();
              And that's all. So, as one can see, managedConn1.cleanup was never called.
              When looking in the weblogic console, I can see that I have one connection
              with 0 handle and one with 1 handle, deemed as still being in a transaction.
              So, the conenction manager apparantly loses a managed connection during the
              transaction. And it's very very bad because after a couple of transactions,
              I'm running out of managed connections (I had set a limit of 10).
              Any one has seen such a weird behavior ? Is this a problem on my side, or
              weblogic's ? Thanks for your help.
              Sylvain
              

              I ran another test. This time I have a bean that makes use of a connector
              once per method invocation. The bean method invoked is "sayHello" and it
              gets a connection to the EIS, perform an operation on it and release it. The
              connector I developed uses XA transactions.
              My test client just calls 3 times myBean.sayHello().
              I can distinguish two cases:
              1) first, the client doesn't do transaction demarcation. In this case, since
              the sayHello method is marked as requiring transaction, the folowing happens
              in the bean:
              // **** first invocation of the bean
              connHandle = myCF.getConnection();
              // managedConn1 is instanciated
              // xar1 = managedConn1.getXAResource()
              // xar1.start(NOFLAGS);
              // managedConn1.getConnection gives a connection handle
              connHandle.doSomeWork();
              connHandle.close()
              // xar1.end(SUCCESS);
              // the bean returns from its invocation
              // xar1.commit(onePhase=true)
              // managedConn1.cleanup()
              // **** second invocation of the bean
              connHandle = myCF.getConnection();
              // managedConnectionFactory.matchManagedConnection is called. It returns the
              managed connection (managedConn1) that is in the passed set
              // xar1 = managedConn1.getXAResource()
              // xar1.start(NOFLAGS);
              // managedConn1.getConnection gives a connection handle
              connHandle.doSomeWork();
              connHandle.close
              // xar1.end(SUCCESS);
              // the bean returns from its invocation
              // xar1.commit(onePhase=true)
              // managedConn1.cleanup()
              // **** third invocation of the bean
              connHandle = myCF.getConnection();
              // managedConnectionFactory.matchManagedConnection is called. It returns the
              managed connection (managedConn1) that is in the passed set
              // xar1 = managedConn1.getXAResource()
              // xar1.start(NOFLAGS);
              // managedConn1.getConnection gives a connection handle
              connHandle.doSomeWork();
              connHandle.close
              // xar1.end(SUCCESS);
              // the bean returns from its invocation
              // xar1.commit(onePhase=true)
              // managedConn1.cleanup()
              2) second case : the client performs transaction demarcation. In that case,
              the connection manager instanciates 3 managed connections, calls start/end
              on each XAResource corresponding to each managed connection, calls commit
              once, but also calls cleanup only once, leaving 2 lost managed connections
              The client looks like this:
              UserTransaction utx = context.lookup("javax/transaction/UserTransaction");
              utx.begin();
              MyBean myBean = ctx.lookup(".......");
              myBean.sayHello();
              myBean.sayHello();
              myBean.sayHello();
              utx.commit();
              on the server the following happens:
              // **** first invocation of the bean
              connHandle = myCF.getConnection();
              // managedConn1 is instanciated
              // xar1 = managedConn1.getXAResource()
              // xar1.start(NOFLAGS);
              // managedConn1.getConnection gives a connection handle
              connHandle.doSomeWork();
              connHandle.close()
              // xar1.end(SUSPEND);
              // the bean returns from its invocation
              // **** second invocation of the bean
              connHandle = myCF.getConnection();
              // managedConn2 is instanciated
              // xar2 = managedConn2.getXAResource()
              // xar1.isSameRM(xar2) is called. returns true
              // xar2.start(RESUME);
              // managedConn2.getConnection gives a connection handle
              connHandle.doSomeWork();
              connHandle.close()
              // xar2.end(SUSPEND);
              // the bean returns from its invocation
              // **** third invocation of the bean
              connHandle = myCF.getConnection();
              // managedConn3 is instanciated
              // xar3 = managedConn3.getXAResource()
              // xar2.isSameRM(xar3) is called. returns true
              // xar3.start(RESUME);
              // managedConn3.getConnection gives a connection handle
              connHandle.doSomeWork();
              connHandle.close()
              // xar3.end(SUSPEND);
              // the bean returns from its invocation
              // the client invokes commit on the UserTransaction
              // xar3.end(SUCCESS);
              // xar3.commit(onephase = true);
              // managedConn3.cleanup();
              And so, managedConn1 and managedConn2 got lost in the way...
              What's more puzzling, it's that when monitoring my connector with the
              console, I can see that there are 3 connections. 2 declared as still having
              one handle used and being in transaction, and one not in transaction and
              with 0 active handle. BUT when monitoring the JTA part of the server, I can
              see that there has been 1 transaction that committed, and no connection is
              "in flight" as the console says. So, on one side the console says 2 managed
              connections are still part of a transaction while on the other it says that
              no transactions are currently in flight.
              Thanks for any kind of help on this very bizarre behavior.
              Sylvain
              

  • When I connect my ipad to a wifi network, the iphone connects to the same network

    When I connect my iOS 8 iPad 4 to the guest network at work, my iOS 8 iPhone 5s automatically connects to the same network. When I disconnect the iPhone so I can send an email from my iCloud account (which is blocked on the work network) and tell it to forget the network, it disconnects my iPad too. Each time I tell the iPhone to forget the network, when I reconnect my iPad, the iPhone connects again.
    How do I tell my iPhone to never connect to the work guest network while allowing my iPad to connect?
    I do not like this feature in iOS 8.

    Unfortunately, this does not help me, there are no issues with the operation of the WiFi, it is operating normally on both devices.
    The issue is that in iOS 8, the WiFi network information is shared across linked devices. Therefore, if I add a network to one device, it is added to the other device and if I forget a network on one device, it is forgotten on the other.
    I want to use a network on one device (the iPad) and to not use the network on the other (iPhone). How do I tell the iPhone to not connect to the WiFi without disabling WiFi while allowing the iPad to connect to the network? It is annoying to have to disable the iPhone WiFi manually each day when I get to work and it is prone to forgetting to turn it back on when I leave.

  • 2 network connections at the same time

    I have 2 network connections at the same time. One for network shares and one for internet. How can I decide which connection should be used for which service?

    David684,
    Thanks for posting all of this.  I have a similar network question with a very similar setup that I am using with two interfaces. However, I am much less comfortable with the command line than you appear to be (although comfortable enough to crib little tweaks from the web and run them).
    The real difference is the resources I'm after and it seems like more of a problem. In my case, I'm running my home wireless network and can connect at decent speeds, but I happen to live right across from campus where I am attending grad school and I'm picking up the school wifi network. Having direct access to this network, among other things, allows me to access library research journals and databases from home without constantly needing to authenticate. But it isn't nearly enough to accomodate all of my network needs. The key difference, then, is the fact that these come in the form of websites. But I want to access only library stuff over that we-fi connection and do everything else from the LAN.  I use an app called papers for research, which has a built in web browser to allow me to pull up articles and then save them. Would that help me by allowing me to have just that program use wi-fi? I am not sure if the app is using an embedded safari session or it's own home-rolled browser, or how to check in the first place (OR if that makes a difference as far as being able to route the app's traffic to that interface). Also, with all of that said, how could I find out the subnets over which to route this if what I'm going after is a far less tangible resource than an SMB share? I am guessing I need a different method or that none exist?
    Thanks

  • My ipad2 cannot find my HP A3050 j661b airprint printer although the printer is connected with the same wifi network.Software updates are current on all and my other labtops also work properly with this printer in the same network.Further more it used to

    My Ipad 2 cant find my HP3050A j661b airprint printer although the printer is connected to the same wireless network and software updates are current on all and my other laptops also work properly with this printer.further more it used to work with my IPAD2 before when I used the old wireless router but now I changed it to HAUWEI HG231f but I set everything in the same way it was. Thanks in advance.

    When you change to the new router, did you re-run the CD to re-set the new SSID and password to the printer.
    Otherwise your iPad will not be able "talk" to your printer.

Maybe you are looking for

  • Need help to handle java FX stuffs...........??

    i am very much new to Java FX i want to do a login acceptance and rejection operation.like :: client will click on the button it will open up the window of created by java FX which will give the login screen*(in this case i would like to mention one

  • Unable to get the output when i run any jsf page in adf

    Hi, I have created one jsf page to access the business components which i had created earlier after that when i drop the another panel splitter into the second facet of the initial panel splitter we created , I was unable to see in the workspace (.jp

  • Upgrading from vista to Windows 7

    I am trying to upgrade from Vista Home Premium (32bit) to Windows 7 Premium (32bit), how can I get the required drivers for it? Specifically the nvidia nforce 10/100 mbps ethernet (32bit) updated driver. This question was solved. View Solution.

  • Ideapad y400 not shutting down

    my ideapad literally will not shut down. when i click "shut down" it does nothing. "restart" doesnt work either. however, hibernate and sleep work fine. some odd things have been happening too. like, my google chrome keeps saying "administrator has d

  • Are bundles that are set to dynamic admins dangerous?

    Good day everyone. Question. Is launching executables as dynamic admins a risk? Does this open the workstation to external threats by the user or other applications? Thanks