Sharing cookies across different domains

We have two different apps in two separate locations. Is it possible to set the cookies for one app and be able to retrieve the same from the other app? Is this doable?

I have two different web applications running on same
WebLogic server say webapp1 and webapp2. Webapp1 has
servlet which redirects the user to JSP in webapp2.
While redirecting I have to pass one string value to
called JSP. I have achieved this by using QueryString
as follows:
response.sendRedirect(ConfigService.getProperty("com.t
wofactauth.caymanlogin.caymanurl", null)) +
"?userName=" + strCaymanUserName);
but this expoes the value in browser address bar but
i don't want to expose the value passed. I am
searching the way to pass the value internally
without exposing.
so please tell me other way in which i can pass the
value to called JSP without usign QueryString.
I am using WebLogic 8.1 for deployments. Both
applications are deployed on same WebLogic instance.I think a big part of the problem is that you want the functionality of a web app to be available to others, but you've locked it up behind a UI.
I think this is one of the benefits of a service-oriented architecture. You start thinking about the system functionality apart from the UI. Your JSPs become just another client of the services you expose. Anyone can call those services, as long as they can see that service on their network.
When I've done this I've started with a Spring service interface that is completely separate from the view layer. Once I have that, I can expose it to any other client either with web services (not preferred) or Spring HTTP remoting (preferred due to its simplicity).
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How to manage ApplicationDomain for loaded SWFs across different domains?

I've been getting this following error -- when I'm loading a subsidiary SWF into a main one. The sub swf contains the overlays. OverlayOne is a subclass of Overlay.
TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert OverlayOne@18684f89 to Overlay.
     at HSRawVideoPlayer/setCurrentOverLay()
     at HSRawVideoPlayer/showOverlay()
     at HSRawVideoPlayer/dotRoll()
I googled and found that I should probably be setting the applicationDomain of the loader context of the loaded swf to be that of the loading SWF (as per Senocular's article on the subject) -- although I thought that in cases of conflict this would resolve to the loading SWFs ApplicationDomain, so not necessary.
But I've also read that this won't work across different domains, and that's the situation here -- the client wants the urls of loading and loaded swf's to be fully qualified . Will setting the ApplicationDomain of the loaded SWF to be that of the parent solve the problem above, even if they are in different domains? Can someone show me a short code snippet? Thanks!

Hi,
DSS has inbuilt functionalities to compare the transactions against the in built rules.If the transactions take place not in accordance with the in-built rules,it is treated as a "violation" and is reporetd.
Virsa is an example of DSS tool.Here you can build rules for access and process ;constantly compare the actuals Vs the rules;report the violations.
In SAP R3 for example,the T/code:pfcg is tailored for access control,while the invoice parking [f-63] is tailored for process control.Using VIRSA,you can address to risks involved both,namely,access and process control.This is an example of how DSS can help in Risk integration.
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Seeting cookies for different domain with port number

Hi,
I've been desperately trying to solve this for a few days now so thought i'd give up and ask.
Basically, when a user logs into the website, the idea is for them to be automatically logged into the bulleting board. This is being done by setting a cookie(I won't go into detail as it's not relevent).
The cookie is being created in one domain (.stage.csu.ac.uk) and needs to be used by another, .prospects.ac.uk. However, the board is on servername.prospects.ac.uk:81, which means that the cookie isn't being picked up.
I've been tearing my hair out for days about this. I can't change the fact it's using port 81, and there's no other way of doing this log in.
If ANYONE can help, I would not be able to say thanks enough.
Sam.

Perhaps you can call a jsp on the other server to set the cookie for you, for example by loading it in a hidden iframe?
This has some maintainance issues because you need to provide a full url to the jsp on the other server, so if anything changes (port number for example) then this solution will break.

Sharing music across different accounts on the same PC

Hi,
I've got an iPod Classic with 12G of music, all from CD's. It is on iTunes on my account on my PC. I had a 8G iTouch for Xmas. I have opened another account on my PC and downloded iTunes. How can I transfer selected music from my original account to my new one?

I also don't understand why you'd open another itunes store account. Now you are going to forever have to keep track of 2 login credentials, and deal with hassles that multiple accounts sometimes present.
You can share music between 2 windows user accounts using these directions. Just be forewarned, if you move things to a shared folder in Windows Explorer, your original itunes will lose the paths to the music. Move it to the shared folder using itunes consolidate command.
http://support.apple.com/kb/HT1203

AD FS Across Differing Domain Functional Levels

My customer needs to implement AD FS for single sign on due to a cloud based email solution they recently implemented. The problem is, their domain controllers are Server 2003 (non-R2) at a functional level of 2003 mixed mode. They should be able to raise
to 2003 native if necessary however. Their solution is to create a new 2008 domain and implement a two-way trust, running AD FS in the new domain serving the clients in the 2003 domain. This way should be quicker than upgrading their current domain
which would be a rather large project due to their size and complexity.
Are there any gotcha's I should know about with doing it this way? I have verified that we can create the two-way trust between domains of these functional levels, and AD FS can service clients in a trusted domain, but I am not entirely sure if AD
FS will care that the trusted domain is 2003 non-R2. Can anyone confirm if this will be a feasible scenario?
Thanks very much!!
Wraith

Hi
Wraith,
In addition, if you are not using Windows Server 2012 or above as ADFS server, you will be fine with Windows 2003 mixed mode.
“Since ADFS does not require Active Directory functional-level modifications to operate successfully. However, if you are using Windows NT token–based applications and
you want a token to be generated using Kerberos Service-for-User (S4U), the domain functional level must be Windows 2000 native or Windows Server 2003”, quoted form below article:
Appendix A: Reviewing ADFS Requirements
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc778681(v=WS.10).aspx
More information for you:
ADFS and Domain Functional Level
http://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/windowsserver/en-US/5cc0e898-eae2-46ce-8491-5ccf61380423/adfs-and-domain-functional-level?forum=winserverDS
ADFS requirements
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc727972(v=WS.10).aspx
Best Regards,
Amy

Sharing reports across different OBIEE installations

Hello,
Is there a way to import/export reports from/to different OBIEE environments?
We developed a number of Answers reports, and would love to share them with our counterparts who have their own OBIEE installations. The problem is that our environments differ and our repositories differ as well (.rpd file). Some of us are running Windows, others are running Linux; some use Oracle, others SQL Server, or even Microsoft Access.
We tried copying the xml and corresponding .atr files from the catalog in one environment to the catalog in the other, but we quickly found out that the reports fail due to different configurations (missing tables, unknown users, problems with permissions, etc.)
Any help or ideas will be greatly appreciated.
Thank you very much.
-sb

Hello,
Thank you for your response.
I am replying to my own original post now. You are right, I was asking for the impossible -- it was late on Friday, and I must have been really tired when I submitted my original post.
The problem I needed to solve was this. Someone gave me Microsoft Access database, the .rpd file and the .xml and .atr files for the Answers reports. My job was to make those reports run in my environment, which is Oracle on Linux. I have finally made it work, but I did have to make changes in the .rpd and add a TNS entry before this started to work. Since there was a change in the physical layer, I had to recreate the BM layer to generate the correct mappings. Then I was able to simply copy and paste the presentation layer from the .rpd that was given to me.
Again, thank you very much for your response.
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Sharing jars across different virtual machines

Hello,
I'm developing couple of applications using a java library (.jar). Both applications run fine in their own virtual machine and things are fine.
However, i'm assuming that the library (although is being shared) is being linked into the byte code (generated by the compiler) and there by increasing the memory overhead of the application.
Is there anyway to actually share this library in JRE (just like .so files in c,c++)?

There was talk at one time about using shared memory for classes, possibly even an implementation, but it seems to have been 'de-emphasized'.Is this one of the reasons as to why Java was never considered for embedded platforms?
I can't imagine the pain of static linking, in terms of memory usage and effort to rebuild applications.

Sharing data across different webapps using JSP/Servlet

I have two different web applications running on same WebLogic server say webapp1 and webapp2. Webapp1 has servlet which redirects the user to JSP in webapp2. While redirecting I have to pass one string value to called JSP. I have achieved this by using QueryString as follows:
response.sendRedirect(ConfigService.getProperty("com.twofactauth.caymanlogin.caymanurl", null)) + "?userName=" + strCaymanUserName);
but this expoes the value in browser address bar but i don't want to expose the value passed. I am searching the way to pass the value internally without exposing.
so please tell me other way in which i can pass the value to called JSP without usign QueryString.
I am using WebLogic 8.1 for deployments. Both applications are deployed on same WebLogic instance.

I have two different web applications running on same
WebLogic server say webapp1 and webapp2. Webapp1 has
servlet which redirects the user to JSP in webapp2.
While redirecting I have to pass one string value to
called JSP. I have achieved this by using QueryString
as follows:
response.sendRedirect(ConfigService.getProperty("com.t
wofactauth.caymanlogin.caymanurl", null)) +
"?userName=" + strCaymanUserName);
but this expoes the value in browser address bar but
i don't want to expose the value passed. I am
searching the way to pass the value internally
without exposing.
so please tell me other way in which i can pass the
value to called JSP without usign QueryString.
I am using WebLogic 8.1 for deployments. Both
applications are deployed on same WebLogic instance.I think a big part of the problem is that you want the functionality of a web app to be available to others, but you've locked it up behind a UI.
I think this is one of the benefits of a service-oriented architecture. You start thinking about the system functionality apart from the UI. Your JSPs become just another client of the services you expose. Anyone can call those services, as long as they can see that service on their network.
When I've done this I've started with a Spring service interface that is completely separate from the view layer. Once I have that, I can expose it to any other client either with web services (not preferred) or Spring HTTP remoting (preferred due to its simplicity).
%

As of 2/19/12 I could open two independent firefox windows and they did not share cookies. As of now (2/23/12) if I open two independent firefox windows they do share cookies. How do I get them to stop sharing cookies?

When google decided to change their privacy and sharing policies I started using two different windows to do all internet browsing and work. I would open my gmail in one window and then do everything else in another window so that google couldn't tie my searches and other internet activity together with my google accounts.
This process was working well for me until about three days ago, when all of a sudden my two Firefox windows started sharing cookies. I know for a fact they had not been sharing cookies previously because I personally go in and clear them after I visit certain websites.
From my research on this issue it seems that in the past this was the default way all firefox windows operated (sharing cookies with one another), so I don't know why I managed to get several weeks of not sharing cookies and suddenly they are sharing. But I just want to go back to the way it was just this weekend. Please help or I'll be forced to use IE and that would be sad.

Firefox stores cookies on a per site basis.
I am guessing that what you are seeing is that Google is sharing cookies across its own sites.
It is possible (an advanced subject not normally covered in this forum) to open multiple instances of Firefox with separate profiles, and thus separate cookies. A more normal method of achieving that is to use a separate user OS account. Or possibly to use firefox portable.
I have not myself followed news of Googles cookies policies, but I see it is in the news again http://www.theregister.co.uk/2012/02/22/ico_enquires_about_google_system_for_serving_third_party_cookies/

Setting cookies across domains

Hi there all,
I'm posting this in desperation to be honest, don't think
there is a cut'n'dried
answer to this one.
I've got a horrible situation, (don't ask why, it's far too
complex and to
be quite honest.. boring :) ).
I'm trying to "mesh" together a classic .asp with an asp.NET
site on 2
separate domains.
Basically I've got a page from the asp.NET site (eg.
www.something.co.uk)
displayed within an iframe on the .asp (eg
www.another.co.uk). So far so
good.
I need to set a cookie on www.another.co.uk and be able to
read it, or
replicate it on www.something.co.uk. Because they are not
sub-domains I can't
set the cookie direct because of security restrictions.
So, I thought I could pass a URL variable across to
www.something.co.uk via
the iframe URL, and then using javascript to read said URL
variable and set
a cookie on the www.something.co.uk domain. No go. Suspect
there is yet
again security restrictions to setting cookies across domains
using iframe.
So I'm kind of stuck. Can anybody suggest anything please,
bearing in mind I
have very limited control over the asp.NET
(www.something.co.uk) site, so
any solution I come up with needs to be using javascript.
Major sized thanks in advance.
@ndyB

You could also pass the id as a hidden field in a form.
Have the link call a JavaScript function. The JavaScript funcition could access the cookie and pull out the id. The function would then set a hidden field in a form to the id value and then Post the form to the secure server.
The form would only have hidden fields so it could be tagged on the end of the HTML page and the user would never know it was there.

Can i use family sharing in 2 different countries?

I currently live in the China, but my son lives in the US. We want to use family sharing together but apparently we have to use the same credit card. And frankly I can't use an American card on a Chinese account or a Chinese card on an American account. Is there anyway we can share our purchases?

According to Family Sharing - multiple countries ??? , no, we can't, and because of the different availability of content across different countries, it is unlikely that this will be possible in the near future.

Run commands on remote Hyper-V host in different domain/network with powershell

Hi experts,
My Setup: Windows Server 2012 R2 / SCVMM 2012 managing localhost and other Hyper-V hosts
I need to run a script on the remote Hyper-V Host which is in different domain/workgroup using powershell.
I have tried
Invoke-SCScriptcommand cmdlet. But I am getting the below error
Error (2917)
Virtual Machine Manager cannot process the request because an error occurred while authenticating MY-PC-15.mydomain.local. Possible causes are:
1) The specified user name or password are not valid.
2) The Service Principal Name (SPN) for the remote computer name and port does not exist.
3) The client and remote computers are in different domains and there is not a two-way full trust between the two domains.
The network path was not found (0x80070035)
I tried the 'Run Script Command' option in the Host tab in VMM. But getting the same error.
Checked that it uses the 'Invoke-ScScriptcommand' PS cmdlet.
Could someone explain how to run scripts on remote Hyper-V host in different Domain/Perimeter network ?
Regards,
Saleem

Hi Saleem,
Please try to follow the article below to regarding using command "enter-pssession" across domains :
https://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/windowsserver/en-US/f60a29ef-925e-4712-9788-1f95e12c8cfc/forum-faq-introduce-windows-powershell-remoting?forum=winserverpowershell
(I tested it in my lab )
Best Regards,
Elton Ji
Please remember to mark the replies as answers if they help and unmark them if they provide no help. If you have feedback for TechNet Subscriber Support, contact [email protected] .

Is there a way to migrate AD users to different domain?

Hello SharePoint Fam,
I have a 10,000 user environment and these users are spread across 15 different domains. Our data/network team are beginning to migrate and consolidate our environment down to one domain. We did a test and had them migrate a couple of accounts
to different domain and confirmed that this breaks the user access. Is there a script or recommendation that I could use to migrate specific users to this domain? This new domain is still under the same forest
Thanks n advance,

Hi,
According to your description, my understanding is that you want to migrate AD users to another domain.
The tool you need to migrate users between domains is ADMT (Active Directory Migration Tool) which will migrate users, groups, and computers.
After that, we need to use Move-SPUser to migrate the users to new accounts:
$user = Get-SPUser -web http://my.website.url -Identity DomainA\UserA
Move-SPUser -IgnoreSID -Identity $user -NewAlias 'DomainB\UserA'
More references:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff607729(v=office.15).aspx
http://localhost25.blogspot.com/2012/06/sharepoint-2010-migrate-users-with-move.html
http://blogs.msdn.com/b/sowmyancs/archive/2012/01/07/migrate-users-groups-powershell-script.aspx
Thanks,
Victoria
Forum Support
Please remember to mark the replies as answers if they help and unmark them if they provide no help. If you have feedback for TechNet Subscriber Support, contact
[email protected]
Victoria Xia
TechNet Community Support

Moving SAP ERP Servers to a different domain.

Hello Experts
I currently have 3 SAP ERP 6.0 servers (central installs) a solution manager 7.0 EHP1 and netweaver CE machine all located in one windows domain (currenlty windows 2003 domain controllers) all running Oracle databases. I have been asked to look into moving all of these severs into the main corporate domain (currently windows 2008 r2 domain controllers) with a view to streamlining the domain structure. All the SAP installs are domain installs and therefore the accounts would need migrating to the new domain, what I would like to know, is are there any other factors other than those listed below that I need to consider:-
Migrate SAP user and service account to new domain
Adjust Profile Parameters for SAP G:\usr\sap\<SID>\sys\profile
Change frontend gui's to reference new domain (SSO has reference to the sap service account from the users domain)
Review folder permissions to ensure security is maintained (the current dommain no users log on to this domain- the new domain everyone logs onto)
Is there anything specific for oracle that should be changed??
It would be usful to know if anyone has done this and any pitfuls to avoid.
Thanks you.
Liz

Hi,
If some of your SAP systems will stay in the previous domain, you may have problems with the saplogon tickets because, as http cookies, they are valid for a domain. So SSO between SAP systems in different domains may generate problems (which can be solved).
If you use BSP or web dynpro applications, and use URL rewrites or redirects ,the change of FQDN may also need some configuration changes.
Concerning Oracle, check your OPS$ users.
Regards,
Olivier

Calling a BSP from different domain

Hi.
I have a problem calling a bsp application. I am using bsp app. system for a logon screen(this is whats causing the problem.) SAP is in the domain company<b>as</b>.com and the calling application is in the domain company.com.
The logon screen is displayed but when users try to logon the logon screen just gets displayed again. I have found out this is because of the different domains and the cookie mysapsso2.
When calling the same url from my machine everything works fine. Also if I try to bypass the system and logon directly to the bsp application (default.do) it works. The reason Im using the system app. is to enable the users to change their passwords according to the rules in R/3.
Does this make sense and does anyone have some ideas how to fix my problem?
Regards
Jon

There is a pretty simple answer here - it just doesn't work. This has to do with how the browser stores and sends cookies. Cookies are only allowed to be passed within the same domain. This a protection that keeps a bad website from reading the content of cookies from other websites (potentially gaining sensitive information).
There isn't too much that SAP can do about this since this is a mechanism enforced directly by the browser.

Sharing cookies across different domains

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