Can u use autonomus transaction in trigger
hi friends,
Can you use autonomous in a trigger?
if yes ...then can you pass commit ...statement inside the autonomous transaction ?
if yes then what are the limitations of this scenario.
regards
raj
yes, you can use autonomous transaction in triggers.
I don't understand your 2nd question, but maybe this article from Tom Kyte can clarify things
http://asktom.oracle.com/~tkyte/autonomous/index.html
If not, just come back and explain a little bit more what you are trying to achieve
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Can i use PCI-1411 to trigger NI 5112 to capture YUV vdieo wave of DVD sync?
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A similar question to this one was answered before by an NI employee with an example program attached. Please search the discussion furoms with keywords "5112" and "imaq" and you will find a discussion on triggering a 5112 with an IMAQ board.
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How can we use multiple transactions by using bdc_insert.
HI
How can we use multiple transactions by using bdc_insert.Hi,
In between the Open and Close we have to use the BDC_INSERT for the Tcodes you have to do.
BDC_OPEN_GROUP
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TCODE = tcode1
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check the SDN for more on this.
Regards
Lekha -
Can i use call transaction in BAPI
Can I use call transaction in a BAPI and create master record.
There is no reason AS LONG AS this BAPI will not accessed from an external system. BAPIs are intended to accessed by external systems... otherwise, creating a Func Module is just fine.
I would be cautious with using BDCs. SAP continually changes screens with each upgrade. When you use BDCs, you are TOTALLY dependent on those screen fields. And when an upgrade changes a screen, you have extra work to do to fix your BDC in the new version.
By using a BAPI or a Func Mod, your impact from an upgrade is greatly reduced.
Remember to reward points accordingly.
Message was edited by: John Jakabcsin
Message was edited by: John Jakabcsin -
Can we use Call transaction and session method in same program ?
Hi experts,
Is it suggested to use call Transaction and session method in the same Program ?
i have a doubt , why cant we use multiple call transactions in same program instead of session method if we have multiple transaction updations ?Hi Dengyong Zhang,
we can use the call transation and session method in same program.
However for better performance it's benificial to use call trasaction method of BDC. but if u want to upload very large amount of data then Session method is more preferable to use.
Session method is one of the method of BDC.
U can also use BAPI to upload the data in SAP but it's a different concept than BDC. Performance wise BAPI is more advantageous than BDC. -
How can we use CMC / events to trigger a process?
Is there a way we can make CMC / events to trigger a stored procedure or at least a .exe file?
how?There's a starter on events here:
http://scn.sap.com/community/bi-platform/blog/2013/01/07/cmcevents-in-business-objects-and-its-usage
Not sure exactly of your workflow, but you can also schedule a custom program object and schedule that to run based on your own timelines.
http://scn.sap.com/docs/DOC-40837 -
Can't Use Custom Transaction Type with SOLMANREQU
Hi All,
I'm newly making VAR ITSM configuration for Solman 7.1 .
I've made ITSM configuration and can open an incident to SAP etc.
I've created ZMIN and ZMIV from the original ones (with report AI_CRM_CPY_PROCTYPE) and added them to DNO_CUST04.
When I try to login with a user IM_CREAT_SMC who has a ZSOLMANREQU authorisations, I can't see ZMIN or ZMIV truncation Types in Incident Creation screen.
But If I add SMIV or SMIN to DNO_CUST04/ITSM Conf 2.2 , this user uses that one and create an incident normally.
I don't want you use an original one. How can I achieve this problem?
And one more question that, If I don't add crm_UI_profile parameter to user, It asks me to select ZSOLMANREQU or SOLMANREQU . Is it normal or do I need to do sty for using Z one as default?
Regards
TutkuHi Tutku
you can assign business roles via
parameter
pfcg roles
organization model
if you have multiple pfcg roles(which are attached to business roles) then it is normal to have that pop up because one person can play multiple roles in reality like same person can be change manager or tester etc.
in your case you should only get the z* if required so kindly remove the stanard pfcg roles in solman
below is a good blog to refer
Where are the business roles assigned in SAP CRM
Thanks
Prakhar -
How can I use a button to trigger a SQL Stored Procedure?
I have a stored procedure (UpdateAdsUsers) that performs updates on multiple tables all tied together with one
parameter - @username
(I'm using DWCS5, SQL SERVER 2008, ASP VB)
UPDATE users SET defaultview='0' WHERE user_name=@username
UPDATE db_settings SET valuestr='MM/DD/YYYY' WHERE keyword='dateformat' AND user_name=@username
UPDATE db_settings SET valuestr='Y' WHERE keyword='COPY_MSG_VIA_EMAIL' AND user_name=@username
UPDATE db_settings SET valuestr='4' WHERE keyword='web_download_rend' AND user_name=@username
UPDATE db_settings SET valuestr='Y' WHERE keyword='cpy_confirm' AND user_name=@username
UPDATE db_settings SET valuestr='WLPG:12' WHERE keyword='INITIAL_ASSETS' AND user_name=@username
UPDATE db_settings SET valuestr='20' WHERE keyword='thumb_disp_row' AND user_name=@username
UPDATE db_settings SET valuestr='20' WHERE keyword='text_disp_row' AND user_name=@username
UPDATE db_settings SET valuestr='5' WHERE keyword='para_disp_row' AND user_name=@username
UPDATE db_settings SET valuestr='a.editorial.company_name' WHERE keyword='sortorder1' AND user_name=@username
UPDATE db_settings SET valuestr='a.editorial.title' WHERE keyword='sortorder2' AND user_name=@username
UPDATE db_settings SET valuestr='a.editorial.production_type' WHERE keyword='sortorder3' AND user_name=@username
UPDATE tnailview_fields SET rendition='1', first_field='company_name', second_field='title', third_field='adsx_type', fourth_field='adsx_status' WHERE user_name=@username
UPDATE textview_fields SET rendition='1', first_field='company_name', second_field='title', third_field='title_desc', fourth_field='production_type', fifth_field='audio_summary', sixth_field='totalruntime', seventh_field='adsx_type', eighth_field='adsx_status' WHERE user_name=@username
UPDATE paraview_fields SET rendition='1', first_field='company_name', second_field='title', third_field='title_desc', fourth_field='production_type', fifth_field='audio_summary', sixth_field='totalruntime', seventh_field='adsx_type', eighth_field='adsx_status' WHERE user_name=@username
SELECT * FROM adsx_preferences WHERE user_name=@username
This functions perfectly in SQL.
Using Dreamweaver CS5, I've added the Procedure as a Command (ADS_User) with the one variable (@username).
<%
set ADS_User = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command")
ADS_User.ActiveConnection = MM_ADSX_STRING
ADS_User.CommandText = "dbo.UpdateAdsUser"
ADS_User.Parameters.Append ADS_User.CreateParameter("@RETURN_VALUE", 3, 4)
ADS_User.Parameters.Append ADS_User.CreateParameter("@username", 129, 1,32,ADS_User__username)
ADS_User.CommandType = 4
ADS_User.CommandTimeout = 0
ADS_User.Prepared = true
ADS_User.Execute()
%>
In a perfect world, either an image click or a form submit would run the procedure. The parameter (@username) is currently sent to the page as a URL Querystring of the same name.
I'm sure it's something obvious, but I'm new.
Thanks in advanceI'm not sure what your question is. Is this currently failing? Or are you not able to figure out how to send the username to the script page? You really just need to create a form and pass the value in a form field.
>The parameter (@username) is currently sent to
>the page as a URL Querystring of the same name.
Never use a querystring to update data. It is too dangerous. Use the post method instead. -
Can I use JTA transactions in a EJB that calls a webservice
Hi,
I created a EJB Client that calls two web services with JTA transactions. I would like to undo the first web services when the second one fails. Is this possible at all? If yes, is JTA the right way to do this?
Thank you
JuliaYou may be able to but it all depends on the RAM and the system. Some work, Some Don't.
But if you haven't already bought the RAM just buy what is right for the system.
Even if the faster RAM works it will not run at the faster speed. It would be Clocked down to the speed of the system it is installed in. -
Can we make use of Transaction code FKMT for vendor line items
Hi
Please advise me whether we can make use of Transaction code FKMT (Account assignment model) for vendor line items as follows:
For Example:
Expenditure Account Dr. Rs.1000
To Vendor A Rs.100
To Vendor B Rs.100
To Vendor C Rs.100
To Vendor D Rs.700
Also please advise me what to give parameters
Thanks and Best Regards
Shekhar
Edited by: Shekhar Yecham on Sep 19, 2008 7:05 AM
Edited by: Shekhar Yecham on Sep 19, 2008 7:10 AMDear Kulakarni,
I found few of my fields in 0FI_AP_4.I did n't find few fields can i enhance the Datasourse.
What is the respective Cube for that Datasourse.
I check 0AP_30,but in Business Content that cube is not available.
Could you please give me guidance.
Thanks in Advance,
Srinivasan. -
How to use call transaction stmt from webdynpro application
Hi Expers,
Can I use call transaction 'tcode' in my webdynpro application, I have tried in my application but i am getting short dump saying
Error analysis+
An exception occurred that is explained in detail below.The exception, which is assigned to class'CX_SY_SEND_DYNPRO_NO_RECEIVER', was not caught and therefore caused a runtime error. The reason for the exception is: During background processing, the system attempted to send a screen to a user. Current screen: "SAPLMGMM " 0060.
I haven't used any more statements in my application am sure from my application side everything perfect. but I have seen a screen shot
with SAP screen in webbrowser.
Please help me out if you are not clear abt my doubt please ask me for clear idea.
Thanks in advance
Phalani MHello,
Since you can't use the call transaction command in web dynpros components, I suggest you to create a report and fill a BDC table on this and use the call transaction in this report.
So, in your web dynpro component you can use a command SUBMIT to create a job in background.
DATA: number TYPE tbtcjob-jobcount,
name TYPE tbtcjob-jobname VALUE 'JOB_TEST',
print_parameters TYPE pri_params.
CALL FUNCTION 'JOB_OPEN'
EXPORTING
jobname = name
IMPORTING
jobcount = number
EXCEPTIONS
cant_create_job = 1
invalid_job_data = 2
jobname_missing = 3
OTHERS = 4.
IF sy-subrc = 0.
SUBMIT submitable TO SAP-SPOOL
SPOOL PARAMETERS print_parameters
WITHOUT SPOOL DYNPRO
VIA JOB name NUMBER number
AND RETURN.
IF sy-subrc = 0.
CALL FUNCTION 'JOB_CLOSE'
EXPORTING
jobcount = number
jobname = name
strtimmed = 'X'
EXCEPTIONS
cant_start_immediate = 1
invalid_startdate = 2
jobname_missing = 3
job_close_failed = 4
job_nosteps = 5
job_notex = 6
lock_failed = 7
OTHERS = 8.
IF sy-subrc <> 0.
ENDIF.
ENDIF.
ENDIF.
Regards. -
Hello,
Here is my application: I need to use a 6602 counter/timer to generate a pulse train of certain frequency and duty cycle. On each rising edge of this pulse train, I need to output an arbitrary waveform on Ch. 0 of an niFGEN (5422) AND acquire data from CH. 0 of an niSCOPE (5124). I also need to synchronize the niFGEN and the niSCOPE to the same clock used for the pulse train (6602/ctr0). This process needs to continue until the user stops the system.
I can generate the pulse train using the 6602 just fine using ctr0, but the pulse train shows up on OUT0 by default. When setting up the niFGEN and niSCOPE to trigger on rising/positive slope edge, OUT0 is not an option for either device as a source for the digital rising edge (pulse train). The main options for both are PFI0-3 and RTSI lines.
Questions:
1.) Is there a way that I can direct the pulse train to a location (such as an RTSI line) where BOTH the niFGEN and the niSCOPE can use it as a start trigger for each rising edge? I noticed in MAX that a route can be made between ctr0's internal output and a trigger line and others. If this is a solution, could you please explain how to accomplish this?
2.) Once I configure the niFGEN and niSCOPE to be triggered on a digital rising edge, how can I effectively have this happen for every rising edge from the pulse train? In other words, can I just initiate the FGEN outside of the while loop and it will generate a waveform for each rising edge it sees at the source until the while loop is exitted?
3.) Is setting a reference clock for the niFGEN and the niSCOPE the same thing as synchronizing both devices using the same clock that generated the pulse train? It is not clear to me the difference, and why it would necessarily be useful.
Images of my current front panel and block diagram are attached. If you would rather have the actual VI's just let me know. Any help and/or explanation on this is greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.
Attachments:
Front_Panel_Control.jpg 278 KB
Block_Diagram_Control.jpg 263 KBHello Cgifford,
Welcome to National Instruments Forums.
To output your signal to the PFI lines,
you can use external connectios between OUT0 and PFI lines. You can also use
the backplane to do so by routing into the same RTSI line.
1)
On the SCOPE and FGEN, the name of the
terminals are actually “PXI Trigger Line x/RTSIx” but on the 6602 you might
need to route the signal using the property:
You can also use the DAQmx route signal which perform the same opperation.
2)
This will depend on the frequency of
your pulse train. If this is lower than about 10 ms, then you can probably
place this on a loop and start and stop the acquisition every time. If the
frequency is higher than this, you will have to use:
- Scripting on the FGEN side (read more)
- MultiRecord Fetch (more information in the scope help file
section “Acquisition Functions Reading versus Fetching”).
3)
The short answer is yes. The longer one
might depend on how tight you need the synchronization to be (us, ns, ps). For
very tight synchronization, you should look into here.
Message Edited by Yardov on 06-18-2007 03:14 PM
Gerardo O.
RF Systems Engineering
National Instruments
Attachments:
property.JPG 7 KB -
I am new to using Labview and have been tasked to write data acqusition program for my company. We are attempting to log 6 machines, each with their own asynchronous trigger (I can't use one trigger for all 6 machines). I have the idea to use (for example) ai0 for the measurement and ai1 for the trigger (for one machine), yet I see nothing in the documentation on how this is done. I have tried playing around with the DAQ express VI (I am using Labview7) but still don't see a way to have the setup I am looking for. I'm sure this is a relatively easy question, but I'm unsure where to go to look for an answer. Any helpful pointers or guidance in the right direction
would be very helpful!If what you want to do is start the acquisition of channel 0 when channel 1 reaches the trigger condition and not start channel 2 until channel 3 reaches it's trigger condition, then no, you cna't do that unless you have multiple daq devices. What can be easily done is continuously acquire all channels and monitor your trigger channels. When the trigger condition is met, then perform the analysis/logging. On the Analyze>Waveform Monitoring palette is the Basic Level Trigger Detection function. Use one for each trigger channel and have it return either the index or relative time of the trigger occurance. This value can then be used to idex that portion of the measurement channel that you're interested in.
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Can I use multiple Apple store gift cards (£25 each) per transaction or is it has to be only one gift card per transaction?? Does anyone know thanks
Hola, Eddy
notice that you have posted to an old thread (Oct-Nov2013) that actually took quite some time to get attention back then**
I recommend that you contact the Store Group regarding your purchase question - don't let the "iTune-ish" URL and page title throw you off... it's the right place
Store Group - Contact Us - Apple Support
** next time you have a question, I advise to check the dates carefully and if older than a month or so, AND it has no answer to your specific issue, start a NEW Question. You did a fine job of stating your exact issue - many folks, not so much.
buenos dias
CCC -
Can i use java only for database transaction with vb as a front end
Hello All.
I am sorry,i don't know whether this location is the correct location to post my question or not
I have developed one application using complete vb only. That is completly desktop appliation and not suitable for centralized database. Is there any facility to keep my front end as same (vb application) and for the database transaction can i use jdbc? Is there any possibility to do that like View is vb based application and the database connectivity is only jdbc
If my thought is wrongplease execuse me.
thanks in advance
sowjanyaSounds like a really bad choice even if it was possible.
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