F.05 forex cash revaluation - unknown amount
Hi All,
On certain account I have 0 balance in all currencies.
But when I run cash revaluation (when only balance is revaluated) to global currency on the account in F.05 the system shows that there is some balance in global currency and wants to post the difference.
I did all my best but cannot find out from where the system takes the balacne in global currency. If I check all possible transactions (FBL3n, FS10n, F.08 ...) I can see there is 0 balance for the revaluated period. However in F.05 the system still shows there is some balance.
Does anyone know what are the preconditions for this. From which table the system takes balances when calculating cash revaluation?
Btw. I tried to change the account to 'open item management' and run open item revaluation on it and everything was correct. But when I change it back the system still sees some 'non existing' balance.
Any advise will be apprecieated. I have spent so much time on this without any result.
Thanks,
Jan
Hi,
For which currency type you are doing the revaluation ?
If you have maintained additional currencies to that particular company code in TCODE : OB22, as the value may differs in the first local currency (group currency). In that case due to the exchange rate differences it will not clear the GL and the same thing may be effecting you while doing the F.05.
Currency type 30 is relating to the group currency valuation.
In this case if you want to valuate and post the differences in the GL. Then for each currency type you have to assign the GL.
VVR
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Computer2
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User1
PQ1
Computer3
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}looks like your method signature is wrong
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Forex Difference in case of customer partial payment receipt
Dear experts,
we have scenarios where we receive part payment in case of foreign cutomer.
Now when we receive part payment in case of foreign currency invoice we use Residual payment TAB.
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Edited by: Paul01 on Apr 9, 2009 9:24 AMHi
Thanks for your response.
Yes you are right when you say that system revalues the entire customer invoice.
But the company does not want that. They want their actual invoice(remaining balance) to remain with rate at which the invoice was posted. Therefore as per company's requirement system should only revalue the amount in FC (Partial) which is received.
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Edited by: Paul01 on Apr 15, 2009 9:03 AM
Edited by: Paul01 on May 5, 2009 8:06 AM -
Hi,
I got acquainted with the documentation describing the principle of the revaluation program and see that the standard mechanism in Polish Localization did not satisfy our Client needs.
Calculation is not correct according to the Luxembourg accounting rules, because at the time of the positive and negative exchange rate differences on one account claims or liabilities arising from different transactions, the system will show the differences in balance, and reference them into account currency fluctuations.
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I put the SR on Metalink and I got the answer: "Add-On localizations team confirmed they do not have functionality for this. Also in standard Belgium Localizations (JE) there is no such functionality. So I think you will need to look into customization."
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MagdalenaHi
Funding revaluation is adjusting the funding allocated to the project in Functional Currency.
The revaluated funding amount should equal the following components:
The receipts applied to the project invoices as they were converted on the receipt date to the functional currency (Including any realized exchange rate gain or loss) +
Future receipts from unpaid invoices and agreement backlog converted to functional currency using the revaluation date exchange rate.
The difference between newly revaluated funding amount and previous value of total funding in functional currency is the additional amount allocated to the project as a funding line.
In the example of the user guide, original funding amount was 1,000,000 GBP, which equal 1,550,000 USD.
During first period invoice billed for 300,000 GBP.
You received 200000 GBP which were converted to 308,000 USD.
That AR transaction was recorded as - Cash applied 310,000 USD (200,000 GBP at 1.55) + Exchange rate gain/loss -2000 USD.
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That brings us to 1,264,000 USD.
The total amount of revaluated funding should be = 308,000 + 1,264,000 = 1,572,000 USD.
The revaluated funding is higher than previous original funding by 22,000 USD (=1572000-1550000).
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For making payment to the billing document from SD in f-28 t-code, we are getting the cash discount percentage but the cash discount amount is not displying even we specified the payment terms in Sales order creation. Even, if we specify manually the cash discount amount in f-28, its giving an warning message
ERROR : Cash discount-relevant amount is zero; check entry at the bottom left corner of the screen. When I click this warning, I get a pop-up screen with the same message and message no. F5073.
We have maintained the field status as given below:
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Also go to FS00 for the reconciliation account assigned to your vendor, the go to tab 'Create/bank/interest" and double click on the field status gorup.Check that in group Payment Transactions, the field Payment term is marked as optional field.)
And SD pricing for the material is also defined.
condition type : SKTO for the cash discount.
After doing all the abouve configurations, we are still getting the error,.
From FI side, we have no issues as it is giving the cash discount percentage and cash discount amount in f-28 correctly. and we are able to process the cash discount document, which gets generated automatically.
Only the problem From SD flow.
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check out this SAP Note
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Cash discount payment not transferred from SD to CO-PA
Dear Gurus,
We have notice that since a couple of months ago, the cash discount payment amount introduced in the SD bill through a condition type is not transferred to the profitab. analysis document (that is, is not carried to CO-PA module).
While we fulfilled the condition type with the amount correctly in SD, field "Cash discount payment" in CO-PA (screen "value fields") is empty, with any amount.
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hi SAP guru,
i am getting error while makng advance payment through cash journal t. code-f-48
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though i have sufficent cash balance even it is showing this error.
total available cash balance=rs 2,35,000 ans we are making advance of rs 2,00,000. getting above error but when we are making payment of Rs 1,00,000 it has posted and again we made another posting of rs 25,000 it also posted. but remaining(Rs 75,000) we cant post advance to the vendor.
our Petty cash A/c amount received from head office through inter bank transfer.i have ceck all receipt no any receipt is park, all receipt are fully posted so there is no any question of less balance.apart from this i also chek tables of cash journal which automatically updated when cash received from head office.tables are 1.TCJ_position
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5.BSIA
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one thing i want to tel you that l we are making this transaction for the month of 31st may 2010 not for today i.e 04-03-2011.because earlier we are using Tally now all previous transaction of tally are mapping into sap.
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before 31st may 2010 imean on 30-05-2010 we have only cash balance of rs 35,000.
and we received cash from head office on 31-05-2010 of rs 2,00,000 and we have to make advance payment of rs 2,00,000 to a vendor on the same day.but when making advance of rs 2,00,000 CANT DO THIS.can anyone suggest? one interesting thing is when i reduced amount to rs 1,00,000 it posted again doing so by rs 25,000 it also posted but remaining rs 75,000 cant and getting above error-
"payment amount is larger than cash on hand ,change amount" though i have still rs 1,10,000. then why this is coming?Please check any future date documents are posted in system.
that means if you are trying to post on 05.03.2011 for the amount 5000 and balance is 10000. But if there is any document posted on 06.3.2011 with amount 7000, system will not allow to post document on 05.03.2011 eventhough you have balance on 05.03.2011.
Just check, It can be one of the reasons.
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We have done config for foreign currency valuation for customers and
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Witholding tax base amount error
Dear gurus
I have a problem with 1099 reports.
The report is showing the cash discount base amount as the Witholding base in reporting curr.
We paid the full invoice amount. FYI the invoice doc contains the cash disc base amount for ex say 80$ for an invoice of 100$. Even we paid 100$, the "Witholding base in reporting curr" in the 1099 report is showing 80$. IN configuration we specified the to read the data before cash discount.
please let me know any other thoughts?
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i have an serious issue in our project:
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Within 30 days Due net
and i raise the sales order , and did the delivery and did the billing document
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it has to show only after making the incoming payment by customer
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pls try to resolve this , very urgent,
Thanks&Regards
Venkat.DhanemkulaHi venkat, did you figure out the solution. if yes please reply back cos im having the same problem !
waiting for your reply
Thanks in advance... -
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Hi All,
We have a scenario in commission basis sale for cash discount as below.
Procurement.
Vendor procurement value- 100
Cash discount to vendor if within 5 days - Rs.2
The same procured material will sold to customer.
( In this while receiving the payment from customer cash discount needs to calculate on procurement value)
Sales.
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The Idea of doing this is cash discount received and paid should be matched,
In FB70 we can maintain cash discount base amount manually or while receiving the payment we manually modify the cash discount amount. But it should be automatically since transactions are in huge valume.
Kinldy help in this.
Thanks in Advance
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