Re: Zero AR in Billing

Hello Friends,
I have a scenario. I would like to create a order to cash cycle in such a way that the net value of the item in billing is Zero.
I.e basically no AR is created in Billing document . Can you help me what steps will be required in order to achieve it
Thanks
Julie

hi
In the item category give the item as free good as TANN
http://help.sap.com/search/highlightContent.jsp
Sail

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Blocking of open quantity = zero lines in billing documents

Dear All,
Can u suggest the solution for the blocking of open quantity = zero lines in billing documents

Hi Donald,
I Think it is driven from T code MIGO.Not from any doc type. I am also looking on this issue. In my case against one document type user have to enter unlimited over delivery.
Thanks
Rajan

Current net value is zero in retro billing VFRB

Hi Friends,
we have used some z fields in pricing, almost all the fields are z fields in price determination includes condition base value.
we are able to create sales order and billing document and price is also getting determined as required.
Now the issue is we are unable to use retro-billing functionality, there the system is showing current net value as zero.
Ex : My price is basing on weight (it is a service material), this weight is a z field.
Landing Charges - 60 MT @ 100/mt, condition base value is 60 MT and price is getting determined as 60MT@100 equal to 6000.
Z field is available in VBAK table and not in VBRK table.
Now i am changing weight in sales order and running retro-billing, then it is showing current net value as zero.
i am unable to find out the reason, what could be ????, pl help
thanks in advance,
Srini

FYI -
Retro Billing is used when you go for mass change of Base Pricing Condition Type in Billing doc(complete) based on Sold-to party & Material for a given range Billing date from & to. To do this you need agreement of your customer, and accordingly you make necessary changes in Base Pricing Condition Type condition record with proper validity date. Open ending validity date, might not be of much help to you in retro billing. So, when you execute Retro billing transaction for a particular date range, it considers condition records for Customer & Material key combination with validity of record laying in the date range provided.
So, that might give insight, why retro billing is working for you scenario.
Regards
JP

Value zero in Intercompany Billing document

Hi,
I am working on Intercomany Stock transfer with SD billing.
Every thing is working fine, except the value in Billing document is zero.
Billing document is generated with value zero.
I do not find any pricing procedure details in billing document.
Please let me know the probable reason for this problem.
Thanks in advance
Kumar

Hi,
Check whether any pricing procedure is assigned to your billing document type.
The path is:
SPRO>Sales and Distribution>Basic functions>Pricing>Pricing Control-->Define and Assign Pricing Procedures.
Assign document pricing procedures to billing types.
Check what is the customer pricing procedure assigned to your customer.
Next Goto "OVKK" T.Code.
Check for your Sales area and all other valid combination wheter the procedure is assigned or not.
Regards,
Krishna.

Unable to post the accounting doc for Zero line item billing doc

I have an issue that customer has incidently created the cross company repl delivery with zero line batch qty along with some xx qty batch. PGI and billing also done. But because of zero qty unable to create accounting document. Asked customer to do the invoice cancel and do reversal of PGI and delete the zero line item in delivery. But customer has problem in doing of PGI reversal and asked us without doing of PGI reversal process the zero qty billing to be posted to accounting. Customer has reversed the billing doc and created again for XX qty batch and releasd for accounting. But the zero batch line item is pending in billing due list and unable to release for accounting .
Thanks in advance.
Regards,
R.Sridhar

Hi
Try to do the summarization of FI document, so, this item will be merged with others. See SAP Note 36353 - AC interface: Summarizing FI document for further details.
Regards
Eduardo
Edited by: E_Hinojosa on Jul 12, 2011 5:36 PM

Vendor's balance is showing in S_ALR_87012103 as Zero but no bal in FBL1n

Hi Gurus,
In S_ALR_87012103 report,vendor bal as on date is showing zero(i.e.bill booked & paid hence bal zero).
But it is not appearing in FBL1N.It is observed that first we made adv to vendor in dec 2006 and then bill booked.
Pl advise.
Regards,
Samar

Hi Gurus,
When i run S_ALR_87012103,i found following reports come and it is showing as open item:
Assignment   Posted on Type Document No. Doc date    BusA Amount in FC
                   31.03.2007 OP    1101400062   31.03.2007 2120     77,500.00
                   02.04.2007 OP    1101400003   02.04.2007 2120     77,500.00
Vendor 100018                                                                                0.00
*"OP" means opening balances which is uploaded on 31.3.07 through Zprogramme.
But in FBL1n, nothing coming against said vendor.
Why it is happening
Pl advise
Regards,
Samar

Making Condition base value ZERO in RF05L-FWBAS

SD-FI Integration masters -
I have a very typical requirement.
I need to have ZERO tax in Billing.
I have made the Tax Rate & Tax base Amt ZERO in RV60AFZZ. I have even tried giving a Tax code that has tax rate ZERO.
Both Invoice & Accounting document both have TAX AMT ZERO -
> BUT
In an accounting document when I click on Taxes (Radio button) [Display document - Tax Data]
It shows Base Amt [RF05L-FWBAS].
Pl let me know where and how I can handle this so it will become ZERO here as well.
This is creating an issue in Tax Report.
Thanking you in advance.
Arun

Dear Prasaad -
Thanks for you reply.
As mentioned earlier, RV60AFZZ has a code that makes Tax %, Tax Base Amt ZERO.
Even I changed the appropriate tax code that will make everything ZERO.
Both Invoice and Accounting document DO NOT HAVE TAX AT ALL & RF05L-FWBAS is having a value which I don't want.
Pl look into this & let me know if you need anything.
Thanks
Arun

Reset a pricing condition type value when generating billing document

Hi experts,
I have a delivery-related billing type. In sales order, there is a pricing condition type Z001, with value = 100, I would like to reset it to zero when generating billing document. Is there any configuration or user exits can do this? Thanks.

Hello,
You can do this in BILLING provided , if the Condition type is Manual condition type
To achieve this you have to do some configuration in the condition types as,
Goto transaction code V/06 and select your condition type and maintain the MNAUAL ENTRIES as C which means you can process it manually and in the V/08 chose your pricing procedure and against your condition type check the Manal entry .
Now you can change the value of the condittion type to 0 in the Billing document.
Hope this is clear,
regards,
santosh

Free goods return

Hi,
I have a typical problem while doing return of free goods.
I made copy control settings from billing to order (free goods invoice into returns order), it is working ok untill this time , it is copying all the free of charge items into returns order from the referenced invoice as it is.
1) As the customer returned freegoods the returned order also should have zero pricing and zero credit note billing.
But in the returns order it is determining the returns order pricing procedure with value, but the business does not want this way.
2} I also did in a different way this time in the copy control (billing to order) to reprice the pricing elements - now after this it picked up correctly the exact price conditions as it is from the free invoice into return order with net value of the order becoming ZERO. But as the item category determined was that of the returns, it gave net value zero in the incompletion error for the order and could not move forward.
3) I did in one more way, In the item category determination for the returns order type - I gave the 'free goods item category' as Mnlcategory apart from the returns item category being the default. After this I went and changed the determined return item category in the sales order to that of free goods item category manually. After this automatically
the pricing got changed to that of free goods pricing procedure. But after this the return order does not go to delivery at all saying order is not relevant for delivery. So this solution does not work.
So can you please suggest me how this requirement can be achieved ?
Hope I am clear if not you can get clarified again.
Regards,
Murali

Hi,
This may be fine for this case, but as explained earlier the same item category is being used when you are doing the normal returns without any reference (stand alone returns).
So how this will tackle if you remove the pricing indicator totally? I need to complete the return order as usual but with zero pricing- only when it is referred to free goods invoice and when stand alone returns (or) when referred to F2 value invoice, in these cases the returns will be with value.
Please get back to me with your answers.
regards,
Murali

VERIZON REPORTING NEGATIVE INFORMATION ON CREDIT

I am in the process of buying a house with a closing date of 12-15-14 atleast it was until verizon got involved. On friday the 28th of november 2014 I was sent an email from my lender saying that verizon had reported a delenquent account for $161.00 on my credit. And because there was a negative account they wouldnt be able to close the loan potentially causing me to lose my contract and thousands of dollars I have already spent durring the process.
So began my journey with Verizon to get this taken care of. I called on friday evening and was told by the cancelation department that they didnt send the bills to the right address. she updated my address and resent a bill. When I canceled in July the rep I talked to had asked me for a forwarding address; to send my final bill. I gave it to them and was told to pay the bill when I got it in the mail. So I waited..
When I spoke to the rep on Friday (11-28-14) she said that the Financial services department had to remove it. So she transfered me over to guess what; a closed office. they wouldnt be back till monday. The irritation is only slightly setting in at this point. On monday I called and was told by financial services that only the verizon recovery department could deal with credit issues. Ok, atleast im getting closer to where I need. I got the number and called them imediatly.. then waited.... a long time.. finaly I got a very nasty rep who said it wasnt her fault; and she wasnt going to remove it. I asked how to get it taken care of; she said talk to billing and sent me over there. At this point is where I started getting mad. But to every new rep I talked to I was still remaining polite because I know they didnt specifically cause the issue. When I got someone in billing they said that they would have to send me to financial services because they deal with this; and promptly sent me over there.. wait.. did I just make a complete circle and now im back at financial services?.. Ok so I talk to them, very rude lady by the way, but she adds a note to the system that the bill was generated a month after I moved out and was sent to the old address; not my new one. GREAT!. Then back to Verizon Recovery I went; where I waited.. Again.. For a long time.. then when some one picked up; they imediatly hung up the phone.. Ok so thats how verizon keeps call volume low.. Called right back where I waited.. Again.. For and hour.. very mad at this point but when the lady answered I couldnt help but to be happy I wasnt on hold anymore I kindly told her my situation. This was the first rep that tried to actually help and was pleasant to talk to. however after almost an hour on the phone with her; she told me that it WAS a verizon error because they sent the bill to my old address; even tho I gave them my new one. but she was told by her supervisor that she couldnt remove it. I said ok "so I have this account on my credit because Verizon made a mistake and didnt send the bill to me, but your not going to fix it?" to which she responded "Yes, sir" in a shaky voice cuz she knew it wasnt right. I then asked to speak to a supervisor; she told me she would check if the supervisor was available, then came back and said she would have to get a call back number because the supervisor was busy and would have to call me back that night or early the next morning.. I never got a call back Monday Or Tuesday..
The first time I spoke to the recovery department I asked to speak to the supervisor and was rudly told NO! She didnt even want to help at all only get me off the phone.
FCRA states that I must be notified from Verizon when a collection is placed on my credit. Which I wasnt, I contacted them. It also states that they MUST send notification BEFORE they place and collection. They didnt update my address, not my fault; I did my part. Also they had my alternate phone on file and my email. So there is NO EXCUSE as to why I wasnt notified.
I also have the right to speak to a supervisor if I feel my issue is not resolved properly. I was denied that.
I would also like to point out that in this whole process I was never asked to make the payment. I even told the last rep I talked to that if I owed the money I had my credit card; and was ready to resolve it and get it removed. They were so concerned about not fixing the issue they never even bothered to ask me to pay the bill.
This will be the LAST time I have service with Verizon and I am considering dropping my 5 lines as a wireless customer if this is the way Verizon operates.
I will have to spend months, thousands of dollars, lose the money Ive spent on my house and lose my sales contract over a $161 bill Verizon is not willing to correct; yet admits made the mistake.
UNNACCEPTABLE!!!!!!!

Right now at this very moment we have 5 Verizon bills showing zero balance due from a past account. we requested copies of account debt. Right now my wife's credit shows 813, 807 and 702 with pending disputes from us. (her credit will drop to 700 if not resolved) due to Verizon collection of $78.00 a year ago. We had no idea of this collection untill credit was pulled for the purchase of our third property 9 mos ago.. We never received any notification from Verizon on this. No final bill due, no past due notice, no pre collection, etc. after learning of the collection we immediately contacted verizon,,,what a joke, long waites, transfers from this dept to that dept, this supervisor, that supervisor, this special team etc...filed disputes with all 3 credit agencies uploading zero balance verizon bills. 2 agencies have pending 1 sided with verizon...not sure why...We just received a letter from a collection company 3 weeks ago for this 1 year old bill,,,,. Really Verizon.. so gues what...right now our Verizon Cell phone bill is $1100.00 past due. Will try and use it for leverage (pay for delete) or keep running up the tab and bail...... We are tying a refi on one of our properties right now with Chase and guess what..we cannot move forward until the $78.00 is removed. Problem is You can't just pay the collection, because it refreshes the debt and doesn't get removed...it shows paid collection and that is just as bad as not paying... we have the credit reports showing colleciton from verizon, we have bills from verizon showing zero balance...HELP.

Archive Link and toa01

Hi everyone.
I would like ask if somebody could help me with this one.
I would like to now how many of the billing documents we have produced are stored in our Content Manager solution. Therefore I made a program which takes the billing doc number plus 4 zeroes and the billing date. These I compare with the the firste 10 digits in the DOC ID field and Archived DATE in table toa01.
This works fine mostly but I found some examples where the billing doc has an copy of it in the Content Manager and when I search for this Doc. through transaction OAAD I found nothing. I entered the billing doc number 10 digits in the SAP OBJECT ID and found nothing like my program says. But when I take the DOC ID from the found billing doc and entered this one in the field I find the document and actually I found the DOC ID to which was unknown befor.
Does anyone has a solution for this one?
Thanks.

Hi Neha,
I'm sorry I don't have answer to your question but I wonder if you could help me.
I'm looking at OSS note 530792 to configure GOS 'create attachment' option to copy the attachments to the archive server. currently, these are written to the SAP office tables SOC3, SOFFCONT1, etc and I want to use the archivelink and SAPHTTP and copy to the archive storage.
Have you successfully managed to configure your system since you mentioned TOA01?
In the same GOS menu I've activated the 'Business document' option and can copy these to the archive server by correctly configuring OAC2 and OAC3.
I'll really appreciate of you could please share your knowledge.
Thanks.
Soyab

Customer invoice for Third Party return and Credit Invoice???

Hi All,
Business needs third party return with vendor & customer Credit invoice.
I am fully aware that standard SAP does not support this scenario.
I am looking any other best way to implement this scenario in sap, if any body has worked on this.. I am thinking in below line:
Changing VBUK-FKSAK and VBUP-FKSAA by using program once vendor invoice generated... but not sure its impact in other area. one impact I can see its making cost negative in invoice.
Another option tried is to delink vendor & credit invoice by using 'B' Billing relevance, This is generating zero invoice if billing block is removed & PO has been created..
Please advice
Regards

Dear Neeraj L,
Can you explain the process more in detail?
Because,in 3rd party - returns will occur only after Customer rejects the goods from the Vendor. then goods has to be returned from teh Customer , but not from the Vendor.
You might thought of - Returns from Customer & then return to Vendor- which is std process? Doesnt it fit your requirement?
But in this case, there is no sales order link to Vendor returns.
Regards,
Reazuddin MD

How to prevent creation of billing docs for Zero Quantities

Hello everyone,
Could someone please help me with this.
We have some invoices created with 'zero' quantities. We need to stop prining invoices for the invoices with zero quantities. Can we stop creating invoice for zero quantities. if yes , please let me know how. Any help is very much appreciated.
many thanks
Edited by: Simsasha on Jan 30, 2009 2:31 AM

Dear Simsasha,
Could you please breif whether:
1. Its Order-related-Billing, OR
2. Delivery-Related Billing
If, Its Order-related-Billing, You need to work-around Copy-Control Setting in VTFA; and if,
Its Delivery Related-Billing, You need to work-around Copy Control settings in VTFL.
You need to write Code to check Quantity = 0, and attach the same within Field: Data VBRK/VBRP; to check and avoid Invoice creation, if Invoice-item has billed quantity as 0.
You may work with Program RV60AFZC USEREXIT_FILL_VBRK_VBRP
Best Regards,
Amit
Note: You may take help from the discussion from following thread:
[Billing with Zero Quantity, not allowed|Re: Billing for zero quantity is being allowed]
I hope, this would definitely help you, some extent.

Zero BED value when posted J1IIN excise invoice from billing document

Hi Guys,
I created VA01, VL01N and VF01. Bed value is showing in VF03 but when I created J1IIN from billing document, BED value is zero. I checked several places like below
a) Logistics-General > Tax on Goods Movements > India > Account Determination > Specify Excise Accounts per Excise Transaction. Here ensure that for DLFC, necessary Account names are maintained.
b) Similarly, in the next tab, Specify G/L Accounts per Excise Transaction, ensure that for that Excise Group, relevant G/L Accounts are assigned
c) Finally, in Business Transaction tab, select Outgoing Excise Invoices where you need to ensure that you have assigned billing type to delivery type and also the default Excise Groups and Series Groups are maintained.
I couldn't figure it out where the problem is. Please help me where to check and what should be done for this?
Thanks,
Manohar.

I maintained excise defaults for TAXINN, I am maintaining A/R BED % which is coming in billing document but not in J1IIN. When I click on simulate it is giving a popup box saying 'No defaults could be proposed for Excise utilization' and click on continue then it is giving another message saying 'Excise modvat accounts not defined for GRPO transaction and E2 excise group'. Please help me what is it?
Thanks,
Manohar.

Tax code maintained as ZERO, then also tax has been charged in billing docu

Tax code maintained as ZERO, then also tax has been charged in billing document. Please help to find some solution
Point will be rewared accordinly..
DAVID

In access sequence, if you check for your tax condition type, see what table is maintained. Normally, for domestic scenario, table 368 would be used.
So go to VF02, key in the billing document and execute. There go to "Header" tab and check what tax classification for customer is flowing under the sub tab "Taxes".
Next go to item level tab "Item Detail" and see what tax classification is flowing for that material.
Now in VK12, for your tax condition type, you should have assigned tax code for the above combination. From your comments, it seems, you have maintained for wrong combination.
thanks
G. Lakshmipathi

Re: Zero AR in Billing

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