Valuation Bases

Hi Expert,
I have a problem in valuation basis. I need to create WT meal 1100 (not dialog / user wage type). And these are the configuration
i generate this WT in schema IDT0 with number = 1.
Amount of WT 1100 is stored in V_T510J (modif = 01).
Valuation base for 1100 are Valuation basis = 'K'
I use standard payroll modifier (XMOD with modif 2 =01)
But the result is amount of WT1100 is still zero. Is there any missing configuration?
Thanks and regards,
airawan

Hi Airawan,
Regarding V_512W_B,
1. Field vaualtion basis must be [K ], I mean, a K followed by a blank character.
2. Rate must be [100%] or whatever but not 0%.
Regarding debugging, go to trx pe04 operation VALBS then go to the code:
This is the interesting part:
WHEN 'K '.
            PERFORM get-modif.
<----
Set the break point here
            PERFORM re510j.
            ot-betpe = t510j-wert1.
            IF fc-sw_dec = 'X'.                           "XAIP30K051676
              ot-rte_curr = calc_currency.                "XAIP30K051676
            ENDIF.                                        "XAIP30K051676
            perform OPVALBS_K_CONVERSION_NATIO            "GWY1127319
              IN PROGRAM (sy-repid) IF FOUND
              USING    wpbp     calc_currency
              CHANGING ot-betpe ot-rte_curr.
Press F8 key until you reach the condition OT-LGART = XXXX, where XXXX is WT to be valuated.
BR,
Carlos.
Edited by: Carlos Martinez Escribano on Aug 17, 2010 9:08 AM

Similar Messages

Calculating valuation basis for ALP (alternate payments) in Schema UT00

Hello Experts!
I have a requirement that I'm trying to fulfill with a PCR but thus far have been unsuccessful.
In the standard schema UT00, rule U010 calculates the valuation bases according to IT0008. If you have two WTs in IT0008 it'll take both into account and calculate the valuation bases.
Here's the requirement I have -
If you enter a PS Group and Level on CATS the standard system would carry out a compare between the CATS entered rate and IT0008 rate and pay the higher of the two rates.
If IT0008 has TWO WTs entered, the standard valuation will take both into account to calculate the valuation bases. If the CATS rate is higher, the CATS rate (valuation bases) is used. The problem here is that it doesn't account for IT0008 WTs at all.
Say for example in IT0008 I have the following entries
WT 1111 - Standard Hourly Rate ($22.00)
WT 1112 - Premium Pay Per Hour ($0.50)
Total = $22.50
No say I enter in PS Group and Level on CATS with rate = $25.00
The standard system will pay the higher of the two, i.e. $25.00
Requirement: Regardless of what rate is paid, the premium pay of $0.50/hour must be paid at all times on ALL A/A WTs.
In the case when IT0008 is greater there's no problem since the second WT is taken into consideration.
In the case the CATS rate is higher, however, we have a problem because the system doesn't consider any IT0008 WTs, i.e. the premium WT of $0.50/hour.
I need to somehow add the $0.50/hour to any rate being taken from CATS.
I tried doing this through a PCR in a lot of different ways but haven't gotten it to work yet.
The problem with the schema is that once it processes all ALPs it assigns the valuation bases (/001) an indicator and the record seems to get locked.
The OT table would read:
/001 $22.50
/001 01 $25.00
When I try to add the additional WT at this point it only adds it to the first record (which already has the additional WT added).
Any help would be greatly appreciated!

I used table T510.

Valuation Basis for Different Payment (BWGRL) not working in 2010

Hi
We have a commission wagetype which we entered in IT 2010 in Number/Unit field.
Since we don't have premium id available, we used "Valuation Basis for Different Payment (BWGRL)" to enter the RATE.
This RATE is not working during our payroll run, however when we are using the wagetype with premium ID it is working fine.
My question is- What could be the reason that the Valuation Basis for different payment is not working ?
I checked the wagetype in V_512W_B table and it has the following configuration-
Current wage type
Valuation Basis = BLANK
Statement/WT = BLANK
%Rate = 100
1st derived wage type
Valuation Basis = BLANK
Statement/WT = BLANK
%Rate = BLANK
2nd derived wage type
Valuation Basis = BLANK
Statement/WT = BLANK
%Rate = BLANK
Would appreciate if the the fix could be provided.
Saurabh Garg

Hello,
I think in your case for commision wagetype you need to modify rule $930 to process the override rate from Infotype 2010 BWGRL field in case you are using the US standard schema.
The valuation basis table V_512W_D and rule $930 together will determine the valuation basis.
The default valuation basis comes from table V_512W_D.In case you want to override the valuation basis rate defined in this table,you need to maintain override rate in It2010 and accordingly have the logic defined in rule $930 for that particular wagetype .
Following is the sample rule definition for a similar scenario.
****(commision wagetype)
NUM= ANZHL Set
RTE= BWGRL Set
RTE?0      Comparison
      MULTI NRA Multipl.amt/no/rate
      SETIN X=NX Set variable split
      ADDWT *    OT   Output table
    =
      VALBS0     Eval.0.WT in 512W
      MULTI NRA Multipl.amt/no/rate
      SETIN X=NX Set variable split
      ADDWT *    OT   Output table
Regards,
Malathi V.

Valuation bases for Different Payments

Hi Guru,
I appreciate if someone can give a detail description on standard rule X012 and how the different valuation bases are generated.
We are using IT554 for position based assignments and is facing an issue when the valuation bases are generated. Sometimes for 4 different payments, about 16 valuation bases are getting generated ( the wagetype is added for /001 & /002).
Considering 2 split periods over the pay cycle , the number of valuation bases should be only 8.
Please help.
Regards
Lakshmy

Hi Gurus,
Let me know some input if the rule X012 process the internal table C1 and if so, how?

Understanding of Valuation Basis /001 and /002

What is Valuation Base 001/ and 002/. I can see 82.26 what is 82.26 How it is getting calculated Experts throw some light on this

Valuation basis for an wage type can be determined from PC - 01 - with specifications (0 to 9).
Its is calculation of amount paid per hour.You can divide gross salary with monthly working hours
you will get the value as per your screen shot.
In the screen shot per hour is 82.26 * 10 hrs = 822.60.
If PC 01 with specification is 3 then both will generate same value.
you can use specifications 1 , 2 etc based on requirement.
/002 case: For some employees per hour amount shd not be on gross may be only on 3 wages out of 4 from IT0008 then you can change the PC of that WT with /002.
Hope it helps.

SAP Note 1438667 - WT for T4A redesign has incorrect valuation bases

Hi,
SAP made changes to the valuation bases in WT /179 through note 1438667, the note aims to create Inflow/Outflow wagetypes /I79 and /O79 for /179 wagetypes instead of the earlier Inflow/Outflow wagetypes /I04 and O04.
For those who have implimented the earlier /179 with wagetypes /I04 and O04, in making this changes how would this impact the old results what do we need to be particular about when unit testing this change.
Thanks.

System will not automatically correct the values. So I think what you should do is
1. Run wagetype reporter for the old inflow and outflow wagetype and find out the employees who have them
/O04 & /I04
2. after finding the employees run the T4 and T4A for them and save it.
3. Now run the adjustment payroll in the current week for these employees with forced retro from 01/01/2010. This should correct the wages.
If the simulation run has corrected the data and check their paystubs , there should be any payments to the employees.
4. If so then do a live run.
5.Now compare the t4 and t4As for them.
Do this in unit testing and integration testing

FG Valuation basis - Std Cost estimate or Net sale value whichever is less

Dear SAP Experts,
Query 1 -
Valuation of Finished goods is done on basis of standard cost estimate (CK24) or Net sale value whichever is less
*Net sale value u2013 Net sales ( Sales value minus Sales deductions)
Eg : Std cost estimate gives FG price as $100, whereas Net sale value price of FG $80,
      now the client wants FG values should be at $80
Is there any standard way, wherein SAP can capture whichever is less i.e standard cost estimate vs Net Sale Value
Pl let us know the options and which options would be ideal for query 1
Query 2 u2013 Can we use CRK1 and MR21 to manually change FG price whenever Net sale value is less than std cost estmate price?
u2022     In case the market value is less than the std cost estimate (CK11n) ,then Is this the approach to manually value FG price using CRK1 & MR21.
u2022     What could be the impacts if we follow this approach
For Eg: Impact on prev months WIP, Scrap, stock returns etc
u2022     We simulated CRK1 & MR21 and MR21 entries are posted successfully, however following below warning is the message is showed when CRK1 is executed
             Note u2013 Material Ledger is not active
Warning Message
Deleting current standard cost estimates can cause inconsistencies. Your comments please
Message no. CK669
Diagnosis
u2022     If you delete a current standard cost estimate, the fields for the cost estimate are set to zero in the material master record. If you use the material ledger, the standard prices in the material ledger master data are also deleted when you delete the current standard cost estimate. The material master record for the material thus does no longer contains a current standard price from a standard cost estimate.
u2022     If you delete an active standard cost estimate, you can no longer determine scrap, work in process and variations for previous periods.
u2022     In certain countries, it is a legal requirement to maintain records of standard pricing. Therefore, you should check whether you are obliged by law to keep records of your standard cost estimates. Please also contact the relevant accounting and inventory management departments.

Dear,
Query 1;
The FG or SFG will be valuated at Standard Cost there is no provision to enter Net sale value
Query 2:
Do not user CKR1 to delete Cost Estimate because it can bring lot of Descripenceies in CO, SAP do not recommend the same.
You can run the revaluation at the month end or revise your activity rates so that you standard price will be change accordingly and your inventory will be re valuated.
Hope it is clear, it not then please revert.
Br,Vivek

Assignment to Bases of Valuation

Hi Gurus,
when i rum simulation for leave Eancashment i can see below entry in my payroll log .
3 /001 Valuation 01 128.59
to get that amount system will consider 4 allowences wage types .
My questions is 4 allowences wage type should have Assignment to Bases of Valuation -->CYCL.X010 set to
Waype included in valuation basis /001 and /002.

As mentioned by Ted, the PrCl 01 value of WT 9HRA must correspond to one of the return values of operation VWTCL in PCR X010.
To solve your problem, you must either modify the PrCl 01 value of WT 9HRA, or copy PCR X010 to create your version (ex.: Z010) where operation VWTCL will have return value 5 (followed by operation ADDWT * and whatever else you require).

Valuation of Absences on different bases

Hi Gurus,
I have two kind of absences Annual Leaves and Maternity leaves.
For annual leaves the Basic and HRA are considered:
Basic 70 % and HRA 30%
For maternity leaves :
Only basic is considered i.e 100% of basic..
How can I configure to achieve this...
please guide
Regards,
kumarpal Jain

Thanks Devi,
So you mean to say, If I create following WT. In my scenario it will be used as follows
Annual Leave WT= 3000
HRA WT = 4000
Basic WT = 5000
Wage Type 3000 Annual Leaves                      Start Date      01.01.2008    End Date   31.12.9999
Current WT
Valuation basis           Statement WT          Percentage
First Derived WT
Valuation basis     01     Statement WT     5000     Percentage     70
Second Derived WT
Val Basis           01             Statement WT      4000     Percentage     30
I want to understand why we use three different sections, I am really confused with tis neither have any help document.
If you could explain me when we use Current wt field ?
Thanks & Regards,
KPJ

Group Currency in Profit Center Valuation ?

Hello,
We have 3 currencies configured, 1. Local Currency(10), 2.Group Currency(30) 3.Group Currency in Profit Center Valuation(32).
What do you mean by Group Currency in Profit Center Valuation?
Appreciate your help.
Thanks
Srinath

In FI you can manage up to three parallel valuation methods to support transfer prices. The valuation bases are stored using the additional currency and the ledger facilities.
You can use the following valuation methods: 0 - Legal valuation, 1- Group valuation, 2- Profit center valuation.
Also you can have the following currencies: 10 - Company code currency, 30-Group currency, 40-Hard currency, 50-Index-based currency, 60-Global company currency.
The currency and the valuation method are combined in the financial accounting document to form the currency and valuation type. For example, if you want to make a group valuation in the group currency, you enter currency and valuation type 31 in the company code.
IN your case a group valuation in group currency and a profit center valuation in group currency, as well as the legal valuation in company code currency is defined.
The following settings are made in the company code:
The corporate valuation and the profit center valuation are managed in the second and third ledgers, which you have to create yourself. The valuation category used is stored in the ledger master data. You need to enter the relevant currencies in the ledger master record.
You post complete values to each ledger, not delta values. This presentation has the advantage that the parallel valuation methods can be managed in logically and physically separate ledgers. This enables a simple authorization control when accessing the datasets of the parallel valuation methods.
Different valuations can also be stored in the Special Purpose ledgers, just as in the general ledger.
In each ledger master record, you can define whether the ledger manages a legal valuation, a group valuation, or a profit center valuation.

Currency of Base Planning Object, KKE1, CKUC

Dear all,
I have a question regarding the currency used to valuate base planning object.
The system stores the total value only in what it calls the "local" currency, actually it is the controlling area currency. We need the figures in the company code currency, not just for display, but for recording, because we use the base planning object to plan costs in easy cost planning in PS, and we plan there in the controlling area currency too.
Anybody has an idea how to get the company code currency instead of the conrolling area currency in the master data of the base planning object ?
Kind regards
François

Hello Guido,
I agree with you regarding the object my problem. However, I have not yet found a way to change the currency of the object. I can change the currency of the header in the cost estimates.
However, easy cost planning ECP does not take this into acount when pricing base planning object in PS, it goes for the object price, which is in controlling area currency.
Kind regards
François

Goods Receipts 101 E from Production Order without valuation

Hi,
we faced a strange issue relating to the final confirmation of production order.
In some cases, the goods receipt of main order, created by the confirmation in CO11N, has value "0".
Taking a look to some production orders for the same product, they have no differences and the valuation is correctly with the plan cost estimate.
The issue is triggered twice:
1- Directly with the first confirmation in random cases;
2- Confirmation with wrong value (higher than Zero), reversal of confirmation and new confirmation without valuation.
Could you please help us?
Thanks.
MC

Hi
With Valuation Strategy M, a record is created in EBEW for each sales order
1. The first goods receipt results in valuation on the basis of one of the subsequent strategies in the specified sequence. A standard price selected through one of the subsequent strategies is copied into strategy and serves as the valuation basis from this point onwards.
- The system calculates the standard price on the basis of your customer exit COPCP002 Material valuation for valuated sales order stock.
- The system calculates the standard price in a sales order cost estimate. This sales order cost estimate can be based on a unit cost estimate or on a product cost estimate.
- The system determines the standard price using the production order cost estimate or the planned costs for the WBS element. If there are multiple production orders for the same sales order item, the system uses the standard price that results from the production order that delivers first (see strategy 1).
2. If the above price is changed after first delivery, then the difference would be posted as output price variance at month end.
3. Even reversal of first goods receipt does not reverses the standard price. You need to manually change it using MR21..
4. Have you ticked "W/o Val Strategy" in your req class? If yes, it means that inventory is valuated using Std cost from CK11N... In your case, if it is ticked and Std cost is not released, then GR will be valuated at zero price
BR,Ajay M
BR,Ajay M

HR - PA upgrade issue (4.6C to ECC6.0)

dear all,
we are currently in the process of upgrade from 4.6C to ECC6.0
and we found this minor issue in the submodule PA:
using tcode pa20/pa30 we can not see any record of IT0000 Actions using 'overview'
but the all the detail actions can be displayed..
the overview (mountain icon) can't show all the records- only happen when we want to overview the infotype IT0000 Actions.
but all the details that we have recorded in IT0000 Actions, can still be displayed (using spectacle icon)
this is only happen in IT0000 Actions
all other infotypes can be overviewed using 'mountain icon' and can be displayed using 'spectacle icon' as normal condition.
anyone ever gone through the same issue?
we have updated patch for SAP HR : SP 32 and EA 7.
the authorization is SAP ALL.
looking forward to hearing from you.
best regards,
dhenny muliawaty (pei pei)

Hi Abhishek,
thanks for your reply and your guidance..
we need more information from you..
1. how to back up the table, is it right that we need to contact basis and ask our basis guy to back up the tables?
2. after we do the backup of HR table T512W, before upgrading your HR support package, then we upgrade the support package and after that..
is it right that we need to restore the table? or that the back up is use to do cross check on the content of the T512W after upgrade?
V_512W_B                       Valuation Bases
V_512W_C                       Averages
V_512W_D                       Processing Classes, Cumulations, and Evaluation Classes
V_512W_O                       Complete View T512W
V_512W_T                       Wage Type Texts
thanks for informing us that it's a standard practice to backup this table before applying the HR patch to system. how do you know this is a standard practice?
do you know any other additional standard practices for HR in upgrade project from 4.6C to ECC6.0?? do you have the link of this complete information?
thank you for your kind attention and support.
looking forward to hearing from you.
thanks and best regards,
dhenny muliawaty (pei pei)

Basic Pay Split not happening for Mid Month Joining

Hi Gurus,
I am facing a problem running a payroll where the employee who is hired at the middle of the month the net pay should be half. But in my case the employee is getting a full month pay.
I have Hired an employee on 20th of February.
Planned working Time Status "0" No time Evaluation
My Payroll Area is Monthly
The Payroll Period is 25th to 24th of next month
Pay date is 27th
I am running payroll on 24th Feb the RT displays the net payable amount for the full month instead of 5 days Payment which is from 20 Feb to 24 feb.
I have set the start dates in the following infotypes 0000, 0001, 0002, 0007, 0008 as Start Date: 20th February current year.
I have assigned all my wage types the following Processing class:
PRCL 1 Specification 3 WType included in valuation basis /001 and /002
PRCL 10 Specification 1 Reduction with factor /801
And PRCL 30 and 41 also are assigned appropriate specifications.
Please guide how can I do it.
Best Regards,
KPJ

Thanks Surisetti I resolved myself..if you could throw some light as the amount is not being calculated exactly..
The month has working hrs 192.
the amount in /001= 66 and /002=52
The base salary is 10000 SAR
and the TSSOLL= 39.5 for days from 20 Feb to 24 Feb
So, Amount will be calculated /001 mutilply TSSOLL i.e (66 X 39.5)or
/002 Mutiply 39.5 i.e (52 X 39.5)
How would that be calculated...
In general when base is 10000 SAR and monthly working hrs are 192
10000 Divide by 192 is equal to 52 which is exactly equal to /002
and now worked hrs in period 20 feb to 24 feb are 39.5
So, basic should be (52 X 39.5)= 2,057 SAR
The amount calculated in system is different ...could u please throw some light why its not calculating exact amount to be paid..
Thanks & Regards,
KPJ

Payroll Challenge

Hello Payroll Experts!!
I am calling it Challenge because whoever I spoke to hasnu2019t given me a clear answer, and most of the time it has been u201Cnot possibleu201D.
Logic:
1.     There is a Wage Type (which is defined as neither Payment nor Deduction). Lets call it W1
2.     W1 has following settings related to classes:
a.     Processing Class 1: Assignment to valuation bases = 0 (Wage type is not included in a valuation basis)
b.     Processing Class 20: Cumulation and storage at end of gross part = 1 (Transfer unchanged)
c.     Cumulation Class 1: Total gross amount = Unchecked
d.     Cumulation Class 10: Net payments/deductions = Unchecked
e.     Reset all classes have either default or Zero value.
Explanation:
We are defining a Wage W1 which neither adds nor deducts the salary of an employee. However, I want W1 to be processed in Payroll and finally when I do the posting it should be able to post to respective G/L account.
Reason for activity:
Client wants to record the amount of W1 in HR, so that later a report can be generated. However, W1 is not a payment or deduction. It is a Cost (Training Cost, Visa Cost etc), which has to be linked to an employee.
I agree there is a work around to this issue; however, I am more interested in knowing if the above logic is right and will I be able to get the desired result of posting the Wage Type value to G/L Account, without making payment or deduction to employee payroll?
I hope you enjoy this case study as much as I am enjoying to research on it.
Thanks
Yash

Hi Arti
You and I are thinking on the same lines. I was also thinking of a logic where I create a WT only for recording purpose in HR and not integrate it with Payroll/FI posting; that way we can at least win half battle.
Excluding the wages from Infotype 2010
I wish it can also be integrated with Payroll posting; that way I can reduce the burden on my FI/CO fellow partner and it will look like a full-fledge solution.
Logically, I think it can still work.
1.     Store the Value of WT in HR (Say WT1=5000)
2.     Define the property of WT as u201CDo not add/delete WT1 in Grossu201D
3.     Include WT1 in Payroll Processing as W1=Transfer Unchanged
4.     At the end of Payroll Processing W1 will hold its original value; W1=5000
5.     Post W1=1000 to Symbolic Account and then to G/L Account.
What do you say? May be I will try this during our realization phase. Currently I am overloaded with BBP work, and also do not have access to Test/QA Server.
I am not sure at what level you are working but I wanted to tell you u201CYou are good!u201D. Also, I believe itu2019s a blessing to have good people around you.
Thanks
Yash

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