Zero balance Asset Transfer

Hi Gurus,
I am transferring an Zero balance asset from one site to another sit but its throwing and error AA396. Can Zero(value) balance assets can be transferred?
Suggest me to transfer the Zero Value or Zero balance asset.
Regards,
Nandu

Dear Paul,
Net Book value is zero and when i try to transfer those asset it showing the error AA396. Please let me the way to transfer the asset.
Regards,
Nandu

Similar Messages

Transfer within a company for zero value assets

Hi experts,
I am transferring zero value assets (no acquisition cost, no depreciation, zero NBV) from 1 business area to another business area, therefore use tcode ABUMN (Transfer within company code) with transfer variant 4 (Transfer within a company code).
However, the transaction is not able to take place with the following error message:
"Retirement/transfer on asset xxxx 0 takes place with no values."
Actually in performing asset retirement, the same message appear, but it is just information (yello) and could be ignored (transaction still go through sucessfully).
Is there any configuration that needs to be done in order to perform retirement and asset transfer without error messages? Is there anything i need to enter when doing the transactions?
Your sharing will be very much appreciated.

Hi Paul,
Thanks !
In this case, the old asset will be showned as asset retirement instead of intracompany assets transfer. Is there any way to do a transfer for this type of transaction?

Zero Balance of Assets

Dear All,
I need the flow of make zero balance of existing assets (i.e.,) making scrap of assets...
Can anybody tell me the process of how to do?
Regards,
Mohan.
Edited by: Mohan on Feb 8, 2010 3:03 PM

Dear Paul Annotee,
Can you tell me briefly about this process...?
Because, here my client is not using Assets after the period of 2002 in R/3 4.6 Version.
Now we are upgrading ECC 6 to them, and they want to use Asset Module thrugh the systematic.
So, can you tell me in step by step process of how can be done? That will be very helpful for me.
I need the information of,
1) How to make the Scrap of Existing Assets?
2) Should we calculate any Depreciation on that Assets for 2003-2009?
3) How to upload the New Assets into ECC 6?
Thanks and Regards,
Mohan.

1KEI asset transfer to PCA

I am trying to understand how asset transfer works to PCA. For vendor and customer line items, I understand open items are transferred to PCA using 1KEK. For assets, there are no open items. So, I am thinking month end asset balances are transferred to PCA. For example, an asset was capitalized during the month for $100 and then scrapped before month end for $100. So, the asset balance is zero. Will this asset transfer at month end to PCA?
Like AR and AP line items, is there a table where profit center for asset line items is stored? For AR and AP, it is stored in BFOD_A and BFOK_A tables.
Is there a way to eliminate this periodic transfer of AP, AR and assets in PCA and instead have on-line real time transfer?
Any insights will be appreciated.
Thanks in advance
Sanjiv

Hello Sanjiv,
the periodic transfer of assets reads the current data from the asset tables for stock and depreciation. There are several tables to be read and PCA makes use of the logical database from FI-AA.
You can eliminate the periodical transfer by entering all asset accounts in trx. 3KEH/3KEI. Then the asset postings will be updated in realtime in classic PCA.
The online transfer of AR and AP is possible by entering the accounts into 3KEH/3KEI but all postings will flow to this default profit center and not to the origin profit center which is set by F.5D. Therefore we do recommend the periodical transfer and execution of F.5D/1KEK for open items and classic PCA.
Best regards,
Daniela

ABUMN- Assets transfer between assets class within company

hi
i am using the T. code ABUMN for Assets transfer between one class to other with thin the same cpmpany for the assets purchased during currenting year not posting give error message AA417, for old assets it is working.
pls help to solve this issue
thanks and regards

Hello all,
We are testing the transaction ABUMN in a system version ECC 6.0 with New G/L activated and, we have received an error message GLT2152 asking for an account determination...
We have custumized the characteristics for general ledgers activating Zero balance & Mandatory field's flags for Profit center and, just Zero balance for the Segment; additionally we created and customized the Zero-balance Clearing Account.
We also checked that all involved accounts were included in the "Classify G/L Accounts for Document Splitting" customizing icon and, that the document type generated by the asset transfer is included in the "Classify Document Types for Document Splitting" one...
I personally think that perphaps the system finds that each Asset has a different Cost center (linked to their own profit centers and segments) so it stops and wonders which one most be derived for the splitting document... The zero balance clearing account could be the solution but, I don't know why it is not working...
So, since there is not any SAP-Note nor info regarding this error message GLT2152, we appreciate any comment or guidance from you friends.
Thanks a lot in advance and, best regards,
Manuel

Changing useful life of assets during asset to asset transfer

Hi All,
We need to transfer some assets to new assets changing its useful life. Below is my scenario.
Old Asset "A" has an useful life of 5 years and depreciation start date is 01.01.2006. Where this asset would be fully depreciated by the end of year 2011. The depreciation runs have been completed for November 2009.
Before using transaction ABUMN, I created a new asset "B" in a different asset class with the exact details of the old asset ONLY changing the useful life to 3 Years. (even the dep start date is 01.01.2006 - same as the old asset)
In Tcode ABUMN, I entered the old asset, doc date as 30.11.2009, posting date as 30.11.2009 and asset value date as 30.11.2009. Transfer variant 4 is been used in this case. The transaction went through successfully. The main idea behind this process was to depreciate the entire new asset "B" by the end of 2009, which should be the case as if 01.01.2006 is the dep start date with useful life of 3 years.
But this is not happenning. The entire depreciation is not been shown under plannned values for DEC 2009. Only a small value is shown. I need this asset to be fully depreciated by 31.12.2009 in variably absorbing the enire balance depreciation for the month of Dec 2009.
Please help me resolve this asap or please suggest me a different way of doing this if I am not doing it the right way.
Thanks & Regards,
Maleeq

Hi Kishore,
I need to change the asset class as well and thats why I need to to do the asset to asset transfer.
Thanks,
Maleeq

If a customer has a zero balance in second local currency

If a customer has a zero balance in second local currency but some
balance in company code currency before clearing, we want to keep zero
balance in second local currency after clearing. How can we solve this
problem? Is it possible to clear customer open items using second or
third local currency?
When the customers have several documents in different currencies, we
have the problem below:
We want to analyze the customeru2019s balance in Euro and USD. (second and
third local currencies)
However the invoices and some incoming payments have different document
currencies. Invoices are in document currency TRY, incoming payments
are in document currency Euro or USD. In this case, we plan to use
second or third local currency for deciding balances instead of first
local currency. But when we clear the documents using currency TRY
(local currency), system creates exchange rate difference for TRY and
also for the second and third local currencies. We do not want to have
foreign exchange differences after clearing, for the second or third
currencies since their balances were already zero. After clearing the
balances are not zero anymore, and we do not want this happen.
Thanks for your help in advance.

Hi,
Have you maintained table OABT?
Study the useful documentation about this Tcode in the following Menu path:
SPRO >> Financial Accounting >> Asset Accounting >> Valuation >> Currencies >> Specify the Use of Parallel Currencies
Thanks
Palani

New GL - Doc Splitting - Profit Center not hitting the Zero Balance GL

Dear SAP New GL Gurus,
I am trying to activate the doc splitting where the system uses a GL Account to ensure that Profit Center wise Trial Balances are tallied.
I have done the following configuration till now, and I feel that these steps should ideally split the doc and post the PCA Adjustment Account Entry - I think its the Zero Balance Clearing account that the system should ideally be using.
I am not sure what I am missing here - This is what is done till now:
1. Activated Document Splitting - Used Standard Method 0000000012.
2. Classified GL Accounts for Doc Splitting as per standard SAP categories.
3. Classify Doc Types with assignments of Transaction and Variant. Done as per standard, no changes made.
4. Defined Zero Balance Clearing Account.
5. Define Document Splitting Characteristics for General Ledger Accounting - Made Profit Center field as Mandatory
6. Define Document Splitting Characteristics for Controlling - Left it BLANK as Point No. 5 is done for GL Accounting.
7. Define Post-Capitalization of Cash Discount to Assets - Ignored
8. Edit Constants for Nonassigned Processes - Ignored
Under Real-Time Integration of Controlling with Financial Accounting:
1. Standard variant 0001 used.
2. Assigned 0001 variant on the Co Code.
3. Define Rules for Selecting CO Line Items - Ignored
4. Define Account Determination for Real-Time Integration - Ignored
Accouting Entry posted by me - Both lines are Balance Sheet items:
DR     Bank GL     Profit Center X
CR     Bank GL     Profit Center Y
Please help me out here.
I will assign full points.
Many Thanks
Bob

Hi,
Yes. Very much. you need to assign scenarios even if you are using leading ledger.
In any enty there will be minimum two views, Entry view and Ledger View
Ex.
Entry view
Account    Amt    A/c Assig objects - Profit Center
Customer 400
Sale A/c -400                                     2000
Gl View
Account                    Amt    A/c Assig objects - Profit Center
Customer Recon A/c 400
Sale A/c                   -400                                     2000
If you dont assign Profit center in the scenario to the leading ledger, in gl view you will not be able to see profit center against the sales line item
Assign points if useful
Regards
Raghu Ram

F-90 TAX (Posting is only possible with a zero balance;correct document )

WHEN I AM POSITNG THE DOCUMENT THROUGH F-90 I AM GETTING THE FOLLOWING ERROR
ERROR:Posting is only possible with a zero balance; correct document
    Message no. F5060
ACTUALY I HAVE SLECTED VENDOR 31 ASSET 70 WITH TAX CODE AFTER SIMULATING THE DOCUMENT
THE FOLLOWING ENTYR IS COMING BUT WITH GREEN ERROR AS I HAVE MENTIONED ABOVE
ENTRY VIEW AFTER SIMULATING IS AS FOLLOWS
   PK BusA Acct                               INR   Amount        Tax amnt
001 31       0000700000 One time Vendor for        75,000.00-
002 70       0020001031 000040010498 0000          75,000.00                 H1
Other line items                3,000.00
D 75,000.00           C 75,000.00                   3,000.00 *    2 Line items
ACTUALLY I HAV SEELECTED CALCULATE TAXES ON NET AMOUNT IN FB00.AT THE TIME ENTRY IS POSTING AS FOLLOWS
31 VENDOR 75000
70 ASSET 72200
40 VAT     2800
BUT THE ABOVE ERNTRY IS WRONG
CORRECT ENTRY IS AS FOLLOWS
31 VENDOR 78000
70 ASSET 75000
40 VAT     3000
ACTUALY CALCUCULATION IS ON NET AMOUNTS.IS I DESELECT IN FB00 PROBLEM WIL SOLVE AND REFLECTING WITH GROSS AMOUNTS IN ASSET
BUT TAX IS NOT CALULATING IN CUSTOMER INVOICE
Regards
sumathi
Edited by: sumathi lakshmi on Jan 9, 2009 8:24 AM

I HAVE BEEN TRYING THE SAME CAN ANYONE HELP AS I AM NEW TO THIS SYSTEM?
F5060
Posting is only possible with a zero balance; correct document?
I HAVE BEEN TRYING BOTH VENDAR AND CUSTOMER WITH INPUT TAX AND OUTPUT TAX BOTH ARE SAME ERROR. IS THERE ANYTHING IN SETTINGS I NEED TO RECTIFY?

Assets Transfer

Hi Gurus,
My client want to transfer the assets from the company code, (we are having only one company code) but with out other company code.
We have tried with t-code ABAON but some error we are facing.
And we are not ready to create a one more dummy company code for the same. And also if the transfer is happing middle of the fiscal year the system have to reverse the depreciation posted in current year if it transfer is happeing on 31st March. Even though system have reverse the depreciation fo the whole current year. ( But this may user can do it manualy) but asset transfer we are facing some problem.
Kindly give me some logic.
We are looking for some kind adjustment entries is OK.
Thanks...,,
Regrds,
John Pal

Hi
Without a 2nd comp code you cant do an Comp to Comp Transfer.... The asset just cant vanish from the system...
Either you scrap it of its gonna be physically out of your custody hence forth and you dont want in your books.... But you just cant vanish it from the system
For zeroing out dep on transfers, its possible... You can assign a Period control to transfers to do that
br, Ajay M

AW01N is blank on Asset transfer date

Hi All,
We have uploaded asset legacy transfer via LSMW as of 31.12.2009.
Below are the steps:
1. Asset Transfer Date: 31.12.2009
2. Company not in productive status
3. OAYC - Last Depre Run: Blank because asset transfer date is at end of year
Symptom:
1. Asset takeover value is displayed on 31.01.2010 but IS BLANK on 31.12.2009 (under AW01N)
2. Asset Balance also BLANK on 31.12.2009, only shows value on 31.01.2010
Question:
Why can't AW01N or Asset Balance show asset value as at 31.12.2009? Is this normal symptom? If not normal, is there any setting that we missed out or need to change?
Thanks,
CW

Hi,
Asset value date will reflect in AW01N only for the asset APC related transactions happening after go-live. Legacy assets will not have asset value date in asset explorer, unless there is a transfer or post cap transactions happened after take over date.
Best Regards,
Madhu

Mass Intercompany Asset Transfer

Hi
1. We have 7000 assets which needs to a Mass Intercompany Asset transfer
2. Depreciation has been booked to the above assets till Dec 2010 and business wants to transfer to another intercompany and dont want to have any depreication booked in the existing company code for the month of Jan 2011
3. Master data for the transferrable asset needs to be created in the new company with the left over life
4. Balance showing in the existing company books on those assets will get paid by the other company so that there is no loss/gain posting on the asset in the existing company accounts.
5. Once transaction is done: Depreciation will be calculated in the new company.
Suggest the steps and transaction codes that i need to follow
Thanks
Kum

Hi Vish,
We have 7000 assets which needs to a Mass Intercompany Asset transfer
Ans) Use LSMW or BDC with T.Code (ABT1N)
Question: i see multiple assets in Tcode ABT1N but its greyed out, how to open the field. You mean LSMW using recording one asset transfer using ABT1N? Could you please eloborate on this option
2. Depreciation has been booked to the above assets till Dec 2010 and business wants to transfer to another intercompany and dont want to have any depreication booked in the existing company code for the month of Jan 2011
Ans) Confirm from client Acc dep values req or not. Or they want only new values in new comp code.
Question: They want new values in the new company code but the new asset in the new company code will have the balance useful life ( like original life was 5 years out of 3 years were used and now transferred to the new company so the new company will charge only 2 years)
3. Master data for the transferrable asset needs to be created in the new company with the left over life
Ans) with transfer asset values system automatically creates new asset no with values while selecting New Asset radio button
Question: We have the same number range in both company codes and when i click new asset it is giving errors for transaction types. So is the other option is first create asset master record in the other company and then use the same asset as exisiting asset for transfer.
4. Balance showing in the existing company books on those assets will get paid by the other company so that there is no loss/gain posting on the asset in the existing company accounts.
Ans) you transfer assets , not sale or scrap. System will transfer assets with as on date values. No accounting entries loss or gain.
Question: We have straight line half year rule, so is there any way we can switch off this rule while transferring the asset.
5. Once transaction is done: Depreciation will be calculated in the new company.
Ans) this is standard practice system automatically updated asset de-activation field in old comp asset master, dep post only new comp code.
Question: Now Business wants to transfer AUC (asset under construction ) assets also, is there a way to do this and what will be the impact?
Regards,
Viswa

Depreciation Problem after asset transfer

Hi All,
During our month end, our user did the asset transfer within the same company code. When he runs the Depreciation through AFAB, the new asset is not showing any depreciation for current month, where as Old asset has some balance. I checked the new asset and in the Depreciation area, the Dep. start date is showing as 05/02/08. We changed the date to 03/02/2008 through AS02, but still it is not showing up any depreciation. I do have following questions.
1. Can we transfer asset before depreciation run or run the depreciation first and then do the transfer. In our case we already transfered, so how do we fix it.
2. I wonder how it is getting the Odep. start date as 05/04/08. Is it defined some where in Depreciation key/
3. Can we run depreciation excluding that new asset. If so, how it can be done
Please let me know if anyone has come across this, and how to solve this.
This is an urgent.
Thanks
Kris

Hi Muriel,
I am very sure you did not do it correctly. Now, this is the step to follow:
1. First adjust the APC value to what it should be using transaction code ABSO. Once you're sure that your Acquisition Value is correct, the next thing to do is
2. To execute transaction AFAB(Depreciation Run) in "Test Mode". This would give you the depreciation that would be posted by the system asset by asset. This are under three main headings namely: "Planned", "Posted" & "To Post".
Depending on your depreciation method, the "Planned" figure gives the total amount the system would post for the financial year whilst the "Posted" figure gives you what has been posted up to date and the "To Post" figure gives you what would be charged to the P&L when you run AFAB in Production mode.
Your Net Book Value(NBV) at the end of the depreciation run for say November 2006 would be NBV = APC - (Posted + To Post)
If Posted + To Post (i.e. Accummulated Depreciation) is more or less than what you expect it to be from you manual calculation, you then need to adjust the figure upward or downward depending on the situation at hand. That is when you now need to
3. Perform Manual Depreciation Adjustment using either transaction code ABAA or ABMA.
You can then use AW01N to view the asset. You would be able to see the different postings made. Do not forget to run AFAB in production mode. If not, no depreciation value would be posted and your report would still be wrong.
I hope the above helps.
Do not forget to award the points please.
Regards,
Jacob
Message was edited by:
Jacob Taiwo
Message was edited by:
Jacob Taiwo

Interco Asset Transfer NBV 0 and 1

Hi,
Would like to seek for help on how to create new asset in the intercompany asset transfer screen with the asset nbv 1 and 0 and the useful life of the asset is zero.
Beside, any ideal for intercompany transaction do I need to setup gl account for the intercompany transfer?
Thank you in advance.

Oh
See wat u can do is that..
U can run the unplanned depreciation posting for the first company and then Write up for the second company
Regards,
Amit Shinde

Asset transfer from one company code to other

Hi,
I have a scenario to transfer asset from one company code to another company code due to merger.
Say two company codes X & Y. From 01.04.14 onward Y merged with X only X exists from that date
So we want to transfer the assets from Y to X as on 01.04.14 and values of those assets should reflect in X with Gross Value and Accumulate dep posted in Y already.
For that we are trying to post the same through ABT1N by selecting no revenue and tranfer variant as 1. ( i dont want system to calculate and post any reveneue
I want following entry to be posted during tranfer
DR Gross value in X CC
CR Gross value in Y CC
DR Accmulated dep in Y CC
CR Accumulated dep in X CC
system should not post to P&L GL during transfer.
Or is there any other method through which we can address this..
Thanks
Karthikeyan G

Hi Karthik
There is more to it than mere asset transfer
Usually, during merger, the assets are reevaluated . In thatcase, it helps to retire the assets in Y and rrecreate them in X..
If you are just taking the assets as-is, then do Abt1n.. Note that the acc entry won't match in each company unless the clearing account is brought in..
In Y:
It has to be Dr. Accum dep , Cr. APC and the balance goes to a clearing account
Similarly in X, same thing will happen
Br. Ajay M

Zero balance Asset Transfer

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