HR auths - P_PERNR

Question

Hi Authorisations people,
I have a quick question about the P_PERNR authorisation object: If a role has both P_PERNR and P_ORGIN, how does it behave for someone's own data if there is no applicable entry in P_PERNR? Does it take the P_ORGIN permissions or does it just disallow the operation? I guess the question is, if P_PERNR exists, does SAP then ignore P_ORGIN for own personnel number accesses?
Hope u understand the question, thanks in advance for any answers.
/ Richard

Answer 1

Hi,
First of all lets take
P_ORGIN what it does--- gives access to a set of people's data (to read change etc).
Now in this there are two scenarios
1 you are a part of this set:
So when you are trying to manipulate your data
the P_PERNR takes precedence over P_ORGIN so if in
P_PERNR you have Exclude value (E) (value for PSIGN in P_PERNR) set for set of infotypes for which you have access to from P_ORGIN then you will not be able to go to your data even if P_ORGIN allows you to.
2 you are not a part of this set of people (to which P_ORGIN gives you access) you have access to then
again it checks for P_PERNR for access regarding what access you have got for ur own data.
and gives access to the Infotypes for which you have Include (I) set for PSIGN field in P_PERNR.
Now this P_PERNR works iff,
1.OOAC switches are activated
2. You have the 0105 infotype for the System ID maintained.
otherwise the P_PERNR has no controlling effect whatso ever.
Hope this helps..
Manohar