N82: Is it possible to assign another function to ...

Hi all!
Is it possible to assign another function to the top right key of the N82? Currently this one starts the GPS (Nokia Maps), but I would like to make it a shortcut-key to, for example, my calendar.
Is this possible?
Regards,
Evert

Yes you can change it.
Menu > Tools > Settings > General > Personalisation > Standby Mode > Shortcuts > Right Selection Key

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Function call another function variable

Is it possible to call another function variable?
Below is my Script:
f2();
function f1() {
var v2 = 1;
function f2(v2) {
var v3= 2;
alert(v2);

Hi creativejoan0425,
Some additional notes:
> Is it possible to call access another function variable?
No, it isn't. A local variable only lives in the scope of the function (body) where it is declared. In that sense any local variable should be considered private—in OOP terms.
pixxxel schubser's solution is based on setting a global scope for the variable myA, so it is visible from every place of your code.
Another solution could be implemented using JS closure mechanism. You can create a local scope (in an anonymous function which is executed once) then return your main function and additional helpers from that scope. All inner functions have then access to the local variables that have been declared in the scope. For example, you can create your function f1 and attach a getter function to it, as follows:
var f1 = (function(/*anonymous*/__)
    // Local variable to be nested in the closure
    var v1;
    (__ = function(/*optional init value*/x)
        // Here is your *actual* function
        // do what you want with v1
        v1 = 'undefined'!=typeof x ? x : Math.random();
    ).getVar = function()
        // Here is your getter
        return v1;
    return __;
var f2 = function()
    alert( f1.getVar() );
// Process
f1('init');
f2();           // => 'init'
f1();
f2();           // => some random number
f1();
f2();           // => another random number
// etc
This way v1 remains almost private but the outer code can read it through f1.getVar().
Anyway this seems to me a complicate approach for a basic script that probably does not require high security level. Another option, really easy to set up, is to use the fact that a function is an object. Instead of declaring a local variable, just handle v1 as a (public) member of f1, as follows:
var f1 = function F(/*optional init*/x)
    // Do something with F.var
    F.v1 = 'undefined'!=typeof x ? x : Math.random();
var f2 = function()
    alert( f1.v1 );
f1('init');
f2();          // => 'init'
f1();
f2();          // => some random number
f1();
f2();          // => another random number
That's it!
> why every function need to return?
No, return is not required. By default, any function that has no return statement will simply return undefined.
@+
Marc

Is it possible to records another machine ip addree in audit table

Hai
I have written system event trigger,it records username, ip address and time in audit table when user logged on database , The database reside on xx machine ( 10.0.0.88 ipaddess ). Is it possible to records another machine ip addree in audit table while accessing database from another machine?
example we have another database on xxx machine (10.0.0.2 ip address),when accessing database from xxx(10.0.0.2) to xx (10.0.0.88),the xxx node ip address will be stored in audit table?.
Thanks in advance
Regards
mohan
CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER On_Logon
AFTER LOGON
ON database
declare
db_name VARCHAR2(50);
addr varchar2(80);
x varchar2(20);
begin
db_name := ora_database_name;
select utl_inaddr.get_host_address into x from dual;
if ( ora_sysevent ='LOGON')
then x:=utl_inaddr.get_host_address;
insert into log1
select ora_sysevent,ora_login_user,ora_database_name,utl_inaddr.get_host_address,sysdate
from dual;
end if;
end;
SQL> select * from log1;
OPERATION USERNAME DATABASE IP_ADDR TIME
LOGON MOHAN1 ISOLA6.US.ORACLE.COM 10.0.0.88 11-APR-02
Based on system events trigger how to find out which user from which machine (ip address) accesing database?
example:
CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER On_Logon
AFTER LOGON
ON database
declare
db_name VARCHAR2(50);
addr varchar2(80);
x varchar2(20);
begin
db_name := ora_database_name;
select utl_inaddr.get_host_address into x from dual;
if ( ora_sysevent ='LOGON')
then x:=utl_inaddr.get_host_address;
insert into log1
select ora_sysevent,ora_login_user,ora_database_name,utl_inaddr.get_host_address,sysdate
from dual;
end if;
end;
SQL> select * from log1;
OPERATION USERNAME DATABASE IP_ADDR TIME
LOGON MOHAN1 ISOLA6.US.ORACLE.COM 10.0.0.88 11-APR-02

Providing you're on 8i+ this will give you the IP address from which th eclient is connected:
SELECT sys_context('userenv', IP_ADDRESS) FROM dual;
Bear in mind that many network applications assign IP Addresses dynamically, so depending on how your network is segmented, the same machine can have very different IP addresses from day to day. If this is just an internal system you're auditing then you might find this call more useful:
SELECT sys_context('userenv', TERMINAL) FROM dual;
This returns the network's ID for the machine, and this is non-varying (unless network admin change it explicitly - but why would they?). This call is also available in the older, deprecated USERENV function:
SELECT userenv('TERMINAL') FROM dual;
rgds, APC

Passing results to another function in MDX

I'm pretty sure I know the answer to this, but it would be cool if it worked, so I figured I would put it out there and see if anyone successfully did this. Is it possible to pass the result of a function NonEmptyCount() as an index for another function Item()? Example CrossJoin({[Time].Levels(0).members}, {[Measures].[Headcount]}).Item(NonEmptyCount( [Time].Levels(0).members, [Measures].[Headcount] ))

I found the solution to my problem.
[1] Create a "After Submit" under Computations.
[2] Select 'Item Value' under Type in Item Name
[3] Select "After Submit" under Computation Point
[3] Enterer Item Name, which value needs to be passed in 'Source'
thanks

IIs it possible to retrive deleted Function Module

Hi all,
i just want to know is it possible to retrive deleted Function Module .
the request is not released yet.

Hi Sai,
Its not possible. (Confirm by contacting ur Basis people, if they can help).
But the following is valid only if your function module is(or was) a transportable object.
Go to SE37, enter your function module name and create. Assign it to the same function group and have the same interface and description. Save it, activate it.
Now go back to SE37, enter the function module name, in the menu, 'Utilities>Versions>Version Management'. Now you should see all your previous versions. Select the most recent past version. Do a retrieve and then activate it as the latest version.
Not sure if it works. But still give it a try.
Best Regards,
Anjali
Message was edited by: Anjali Devi

Can a function module call another function module

Can a function module call another function module:-
within the same function group
(ii) within different function groups

Hi,
We can call function from another function. If there is a function which is like a calculator and all the operations are from different functions then we have to call the functions from the calculator function for different functions.
If all the function are from same function group, Then the data is globally available to all the functions with in the group.
Otherwise we have to declare the data definitions for each of the functions if they are in different function groups.
Yes it is possible to call a function module from another function module:-
within the same function group
(ii) within different function groups
Reward.

Is it possible to call Normal function Module from WD4A , Not RFCs

Is it possible to call Normal function Module(FM) from WebDynPro for ABAP , Not RFCs

There is no difference, unless you are specifically calling the RFC to connect to another system. If so, then you need to add the DESTINATION keyword to the function call and specify the destination name. This name must be defined in SM59. But, if you are not going to another system, you can call the RFC the same way you call the regular function module.
REgards,
Rich Heilman

How get the RVS4000's DHCP server to assign another IP address other than its own as the default gateway to its DHCP clients?

Hi,
I have a RVS4000 router with DHCP enabled and in router mode.
The LAN is 192.168.2.x. The RVS4000 static IP address is 192.168.2.8
The router is not the RVS4000 and is at 192.168.2.1
The RVS4000 dhcp is assigning it's clients a default gateway of 192.168.2.8 instead of what I want 192.168.2.1.
How can I get the RVS4000's DHCP server to assign another IP address other than its own as the default gateway to its DHCP clients?
Thanks

Hi Gail, you cannot do this. The router, as the DHCP server will only assign a default gateway of what IP interface the DHCP server runs on. If you have the default IP, the gateway is 192.168.1.1. If you create a second vlan, by default it would be 192.168.2.1.
There are not configuration options for the built-in DHCP server. If you'd like to expand this functionality, you would need an external dhcp server.
-Tom
Please mark answered for helpful posts

How to assign whole Function Group in a Transport

Hi Experts,
I have to transport a big Function Group from one system to another. So how i can assign whole Function Group to a Transport without going each and every function module (includes and text) and attaching them to Transport.
Thanks in advance.
Regards,
Anil

Hi Amit,
I tried this option. it was not accepting the Transport Request.
Please, give some details.
Regards,
anil

Group Already Created (Assign Another Name)

Hi SD Guru's
I am getting this message "Group Already Created (Assign Another Name) " as soon as i enter my order type , sales org , dist chann , and division in VA01 and press Enter .
Message No. is JVSD002
What could be the possible reason for the same?
How can it be resolved.
Regards
Ravi

Hi SD Guru's
I am getting this message "Group Already Created (Assign Another Name) " as soon as i enter my order type , sales org , dist chann , and division in VA01 and press Enter .
Message No. is JVSD002
What could be the possible reason for the same?
How can it be resolved.
Regards
Ravi

Assign any function to Track point middle button?

I would like to know if anyone has assigned any function to the track point middle button. I would like to assign "delete" to the middle button instead of the default track point options, but i have been unable to find any third party software or hack that would work. Thanks for any info.
Skip
T61P, T7800, DVD-RW, 2gb ram, 15.4 WUXGA

Hello,
Try System Preferences>Energy Saver>Options tab, uncheck Allow power button to sleep computer.
Some possible other options...
Control-Eject
The dialog box "Are you sure you want to shut down your computer now?" appears with options to Restart, Sleep, Cancel or Shut Down. After the dialog appears, press the R key to Restart, press the S key to Sleep, press the Esc key to Cancel, or press the Return key to Shut Down.
Control-Command-Eject
Quits all applications (after giving you a chance to save changes to open documents) and restarts the computer.
Control-Option-Command-Eject
Quits all applications (after giving you a chance to save changes to open documents) and shuts the computer down.
Command-Option-Eject
Puts the computer to sleep.
Shift-Control-Eject
Puts all displays to sleep.
Power button (if the computer is not responding)
Press and hold the power button on the computer for six seconds to shut down the computer.
http://support.apple.com/kb/ht2448

Is it possible to assign different company code employees(country grouping also different) under same Organizational Unit?

Hi SAP Experts,
In OM side, Org Unit is linked to company code "GB**" cost center, when we tried to assign new cost center(company code is GB**), system throws error "Company Code changes involves Invalid change of country". I know when we try to assign cost center, belongs to another country company code, this error comes. I checked and found that employees under OU belong to 2 different countries.Few of the employees belong to GB** company code while other employees belong to FI** company code.
Is it possible to assign different company code employees(different country code) to the same OU? if yes, how can we do that?
Please reply soon
BR,
RG

Hi RG
"Is it possible to assign different company code employees(different country code) to the same OU? if yes, how can we do that?"
Yes it is possible to assign by creating sub org unit and then assigning cost center based on the company code (and country code)
When the child org unit is created under the Parent org unit - maintain the Account assignment details - cost center details based on the company code of other countries i.e Finland and any positions created it will be under Finland and that way you can choose different countries.
Example :
Root Org unit : XYZ / OU
Sub Org units : GB / Finland / Italy / NL etc with respective cost centers
Sub Org units or positions: GB_HR / GB_Sales etc which will default the cost center from the GB org unit.
In our current clients we have more than 5 + countries under the Root Org unit and then sub org units as each country which are further divided and have respective cost centers assigned.
best wishes
V

How to find the existing function module is used in another function module

Hi all,
I created a function module and the same one is called from another function module.
When I tried to find where the first function module is used using Where-used List , I am getting the message "function module not found in selected areas" .
Please guide me what is other method to find whether the function module is used in another one.
Thanks,
Vengal Rao.

hi,
Go to UTILITIES-> Update Navigation index.
or go to fucntion group and Generate the Funtion group once.
it will detect all fucntion modules under that function group.
regards,
Rama

HT1353 Is it possible to have another iCloud login on my unit without me logging into that account?

Is it possible to have another iCloud login on my unit without me logging into that account?
I lost my iTouch4 last June10 after a party. I stayed in a hotel with my team that night when i lost it --- lost in the hotel not in the party. I just got my new iPhone 4S this June25. When i used Find my Phone app i saw that there are 2 devices: ipod (named after one of my teammates) and iPhone (under my name). whne i check the features of my iPhone, the contacts, calendar, bookmarks and apps i downloaded previously on iTunes are sync to what i entered on my iTouch. My teammate told me that he also noticed that on "his iPod" and he dont know why his apple ID was changed to mine.
Is it possible to get that situation? Or is that an evidence that he has my iPod touch 4? I need help to clear things out. Thanks.

- I do not understand what yo are seeing with the FIndMyiPod app. That app can set up to find any iOS device. you just have to enter the Apple ID and passwords used for that device.
- on your computer go to iCloud, sign into your account and go to FindMyiPhone. What do you find?

Is it possible to assign a default value to an out parameter??

Is it possible to assign a default value to an out parameter??
Thanks in advance.

pradeep.vupala wrote:
I think ur looking for an IN OUT parameter?That won't help.
A quick test is easy to check what happens :
SQL> create or replace procedure myproc(p_out out number default 1)
2 as
3 begin
4 null;
5 end;
6 /
Warning: Procedure created with compilation errors.
SQL> show err
Errors for PROCEDURE MYPROC:
LINE/COL ERROR
1/18 PLS-00230: OUT and IN OUT formal parameters may not have default expressions
SQL> create or replace procedure myproc(p_out in out number default 1)
2 as
3 begin
4 null;
5 end;
6 /
Warning: Procedure created with compilation errors.
SQL> show err
Errors for PROCEDURE MYPROC:
LINE/COL ERROR
1/18 PLS-00230: OUT and IN OUT formal parameters may not have default expressions
SQL>

N82: Is it possible to assign another function to ...

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